which client will benefit most from the application of pneumatic compression devices to the lower extremities the client who
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Adult Health 2 Exam 1

1. Which client will benefit most from the application of pneumatic compression devices to the lower extremities? The client who

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Pneumatic compression devices are most beneficial for immobile clients on prescribed bedrest to prevent deep vein thrombosis. Applying these devices helps in promoting circulation and preventing blood clots. Choices B, C, and D do not specifically relate to the primary indication for pneumatic compression devices, making them incorrect. Pressure ulcers, diminished pedal pulse volume, and confusion with climbing out of bed may require different interventions or treatments.

2. The nurse observes a client with new-onset tachycardia. What should the nurse do first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client presents with new-onset tachycardia, the first action the nurse should take is to assess for any associated symptoms like chest pain or discomfort. This is important to differentiate the potential causes of tachycardia and guide appropriate interventions. Checking the client's temperature (Choice A) may be relevant in certain situations but is not the priority when tachycardia is observed. Administering prescribed beta-blockers (Choice B) should only be done after a comprehensive assessment and healthcare provider's orders. Monitoring the client's blood pressure (Choice D) is important, but assessing for chest pain or discomfort takes precedence in this scenario to rule out cardiac causes of tachycardia.

3. A client with a diagnosis of heart failure is receiving furosemide (Lasix). Which electrolyte imbalance should the nurse monitor for?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for low potassium levels. Choice A, Hyperkalemia, is incorrect as furosemide does not typically cause high potassium levels. Choice B, Hyponatremia, is incorrect as furosemide primarily affects potassium levels, not sodium. Choice C, Hypocalcemia, is incorrect as furosemide does not directly impact calcium levels.

4. The nurse is caring for a client with increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which position should the nurse avoid?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Positioning the client in the prone position. Placing the client in the prone position should be avoided in a client with increased intracranial pressure (ICP) as it can further raise ICP. The prone position can hinder venous return and increase pressure within the cranial vault, potentially worsening the client's condition. Keeping the head of the bed elevated at 30 degrees helps promote venous drainage and reduce ICP. Placing the client in a lateral recumbent position can also assist in reducing ICP by optimizing cerebral perfusion. Elevating the client's legs can help improve venous return and maintain adequate cerebral blood flow, making it a suitable positioning intervention for managing increased ICP.

5. What are the final factors that contribute to blood pressure? (Select all that apply)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Neuroendocrine hormones play a crucial role in regulating blood pressure by influencing factors like fluid balance, blood volume, and vessel constriction. While heart rate, stroke volume, and peripheral resistance are important factors affecting blood pressure, the final parameters that directly produce blood pressure are influenced by neuroendocrine hormones. Therefore, choice D is the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are involved in the regulation of blood pressure but are not the final parameters that directly produce it.

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