HESI LPN
Adult Health Exam 1 Chamberlain
1. A client who is 24 weeks pregnant presents with a complaint of feeling dizzy when lying on her back. What is the best response by the nurse?
- A. Advise the client to lie on her side
- B. Encourage the client to drink more fluids
- C. Suggest the client elevate her legs when lying down
- D. Recommend the client take short walks throughout the day
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to advise the client to lie on her side. Lying on the side can prevent the compression of the vena cava, which can cause dizziness in pregnant women. Encouraging the client to drink more fluids (Choice B) may be beneficial for other conditions but is not the best response for dizziness when lying on her back. Suggesting the client elevate her legs when lying down (Choice C) is not directly related to the issue described by the client. Recommending the client take short walks throughout the day (Choice D) may be helpful for other pregnancy-related symptoms but is not the most appropriate action for dizziness when lying on her back.
2. The client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide (Lasix). What should the nurse include in the teaching plan?
- A. Increase potassium-rich foods in the diet
- B. Avoid foods high in sodium
- C. Monitor fluid intake and adjust as needed
- D. Take the medication in the morning
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to increase potassium-rich foods in the diet. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium loss as a side effect. By increasing potassium-rich foods, the client can help prevent hypokalemia, a potential complication of furosemide therapy. Choice B is incorrect because while limiting sodium intake is generally advisable for heart failure, it is not directly related to furosemide use. Choice C is incorrect because fluid intake should be monitored and adjusted based on the individual's condition, but setting a specific limit of 1 liter per day is not a standard recommendation. Choice D is incorrect because furosemide is usually taken in the morning to prevent disturbances in sleep due to increased urination during the night.
3. A client with asthma is prescribed a corticosteroid inhaler. What instruction should the nurse give about the inhaler?
- A. Use it only during asthma attacks
- B. Rinse the mouth after each use to prevent oral thrush
- C. It will provide immediate relief during an asthma attack
- D. Increase the dose if breathing does not improve
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client using a corticosteroid inhaler is to rinse the mouth after each use to prevent the development of oral thrush, a common side effect of these inhalers. Choice A is incorrect as corticosteroid inhalers are often used regularly as a maintenance treatment, not just during asthma attacks. Choice C is incorrect because corticosteroid inhalers provide long-term control of asthma symptoms, not immediate relief during an attack. Choice D is incorrect and potentially dangerous advice as increasing the dose without medical guidance can lead to adverse effects.
4. Which structures are located in the subcutaneous layer of the skin?
- A. Sebaceous and sweat glands
- B. Melanin and keratin
- C. Sensory receptors and hair follicles
- D. Adipose cells and blood vessels
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Adipose cells and blood vessels. The subcutaneous layer, also known as the hypodermis, primarily consists of adipose (fat) tissue and blood vessels. Adipose tissue provides insulation, energy storage, and cushioning, while blood vessels supply nutrients and oxygen. Sebaceous and sweat glands are located in the dermis, which is the layer beneath the epidermis. Melanin and keratin are components of the epidermis, responsible for skin color and waterproofing, respectively. Sensory receptors and hair follicles are found in the dermis and extend into the subcutaneous layer but are not exclusive to it.
5. A client with a history of peptic ulcer disease (PUD) is prescribed omeprazole (Prilosec). What is the primary action of this medication?
- A. Neutralizes stomach acid
- B. Reduces gastric acid production
- C. Forms a protective barrier over ulcers
- D. Increases gastric mucus production
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Reduces gastric acid production. Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor that works by reducing gastric acid production, thereby helping to heal ulcers. While neutralizing stomach acid is associated with antacids, forming a protective barrier over ulcers is more characteristic of medications like sucralfate. The action described in choice D, increasing gastric mucus production, is not the primary mechanism of action of omeprazole in treating peptic ulcer disease.
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