HESI LPN
Adult Health 1 Final Exam
1. Based on the documentation in the medical record, which action should the nurse implement next?
- A. Administer the rubella vaccine subcutaneously
- B. Observe the mother breastfeeding her infant
- C. Call the nursery for the infant's blood type result
- D. Administer Vicodin one tablet for pain
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to observe the mother breastfeeding her infant. This action is essential to ensure that the infant is feeding well and to assess maternal-infant bonding. Administering the rubella vaccine subcutaneously (Option A) is not the immediate priority in this scenario as assessing breastfeeding is more crucial. Calling the nursery for the infant's blood type result (Option C) is premature and not the next appropriate step, as it does not address the immediate needs of the newborn. Administering Vicodin one tablet for pain (Option D) is not indicated without further assessment or indication of pain, making it an incorrect choice at this time.
2. The nurse is teaching a client with diabetes about foot care. Which instruction is most important to prevent complications?
- A. Soak feet in warm water daily
- B. Apply moisturizer between the toes
- C. Wear cotton socks
- D. Inspect feet daily for cuts or sores
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Inspect feet daily for cuts or sores. Daily foot inspection is crucial for clients with diabetes to detect early signs of injury or infection. Soaking feet in warm water daily (choice A) can lead to skin maceration, making the skin more susceptible to breakdown. Applying moisturizer between the toes (choice B) can increase moisture and the risk of fungal infections. While wearing cotton socks (choice C) is beneficial for diabetic foot care, it is not as crucial as daily foot inspections to prevent complications.
3. A client with a diagnosis of heart failure is receiving furosemide (Lasix). Which electrolyte imbalance should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Hyperkalemia.
- B. Hyponatremia.
- C. Hypocalcemia.
- D. Hypokalemia.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for low potassium levels. Choice A, Hyperkalemia, is incorrect as furosemide does not typically cause high potassium levels. Choice B, Hyponatremia, is incorrect as furosemide primarily affects potassium levels, not sodium. Choice C, Hypocalcemia, is incorrect as furosemide does not directly impact calcium levels.
4. A client is admitted to the hospital with second and third degree burns to the face and neck. How should the nurse best position the client to maximize function of the neck and face and prevent contracture?
- A. The neck extended backward using a rolled towel behind the neck
- B. Prone position using pillows to support both arms outward from the torso
- C. Side-lying position using pillows to support the abdomen and back
- D. The neck forward using pillows under the head and sandbags on both sides
Correct answer: D
Rationale: After sustaining burns to the face and neck, positioning is crucial to maintain functional posture, reduce pain, and prevent contractures. Placing the neck forward using pillows under the head and sandbags on both sides is the best option in this scenario. This position helps prevent neck and facial contractures, allowing for optimal function and healing. Choices A, B, and C do not adequately address the specific needs of a client with burns to the face and neck. Choice A could potentially exacerbate neck contractures, Choice B focuses on arm support rather than neck and face positioning, and Choice C does not directly address the needs of the burned face and neck, making them less effective in preventing contractures in these critical areas.
5. During a severe asthma exacerbation in a client, what is the nurse's priority?
- A. Administer a rescue inhaler immediately
- B. Prepare for intubation
- C. Encourage deep breathing exercises
- D. Monitor oxygen saturation levels
Correct answer: A
Rationale: During a severe asthma exacerbation, the nurse's priority is to administer a rescue inhaler immediately. This action helps open the airways and improve breathing, which is crucial in managing the exacerbation. Choice B, preparing for intubation, would be considered if the client's condition deteriorates and they are unable to maintain adequate oxygenation even after using the rescue inhaler. Encouraging deep breathing exercises (Choice C) may not be appropriate during a severe exacerbation as the client may struggle to breathe. While monitoring oxygen saturation levels (Choice D) is important, the immediate administration of a rescue inhaler takes precedence to address the acute breathing difficulty.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access