HESI LPN
Adult Health 1 Final Exam
1. Based on the documentation in the medical record, which action should the nurse implement next?
- A. Administer the rubella vaccine subcutaneously
- B. Observe the mother breastfeeding her infant
- C. Call the nursery for the infant's blood type result
- D. Administer Vicodin one tablet for pain
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to observe the mother breastfeeding her infant. This action is essential to ensure that the infant is feeding well and to assess maternal-infant bonding. Administering the rubella vaccine subcutaneously (Option A) is not the immediate priority in this scenario as assessing breastfeeding is more crucial. Calling the nursery for the infant's blood type result (Option C) is premature and not the next appropriate step, as it does not address the immediate needs of the newborn. Administering Vicodin one tablet for pain (Option D) is not indicated without further assessment or indication of pain, making it an incorrect choice at this time.
2. Before a client undergoes a Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) scan with contrast, what should the nurse assess?
- A. If the client has any metal implants
- B. If the client has allergies to iodine or shellfish
- C. If the client has a history of claustrophobia
- D. If the client has ever had a similar procedure before
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Before an MRI scan with contrast, the nurse should assess if the client has any metal implants. Metal implants can interfere with the magnetic field of the MRI, which can pose a risk to the client's safety and compromise the quality of the scan. Assessing for allergies to iodine or shellfish (Choice B) is important for contrast agents but not specific to metal implants. Claustrophobia assessment (Choice C) is relevant for MRI scans due to the confined space but not specific to metal implants. Past procedures (Choice D) are important for comparison but not directly related to the risks associated with metal implants during an MRI scan with contrast.
3. A client is being treated for dehydration. Which clinical finding would indicate that treatment is effective?
- A. Dry mucous membranes
- B. Increased urine output
- C. Tachycardia
- D. Hypotension
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased urine output. When a client is being treated for dehydration, increased urine output is a positive indication that the treatment is effective. This signifies that the body is beginning to rehydrate and eliminate excess fluid. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because dry mucous membranes, tachycardia, and hypotension are all associated with dehydration and would not be signs of effective treatment.
4. A client is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin) for atrial fibrillation. Which dietary instruction should the nurse provide?
- A. Increase intake of green leafy vegetables
- B. Avoid foods high in vitamin K
- C. Increase intake of foods rich in vitamin C
- D. Limit intake of dairy products
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Avoid foods high in vitamin K.' Vitamin K can decrease the effectiveness of warfarin, so it is essential for clients on warfarin therapy to avoid foods high in vitamin K. Green leafy vegetables are high in vitamin K, so choice A is incorrect. Choices C and D are unrelated to the dietary restrictions needed for clients taking warfarin and are therefore incorrect.
5. A grand multiparous client had a precipitous delivery in the emergency room 6 hours ago. The client was given oxytocin intramuscularly after birth. The nurse examines the client and observes the pad under her buttocks is full of blood. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Place a new pad and weigh the pad removed to determine blood loss.
- B. Massage the fundus and express clots.
- C. Start an IV and begin an oxytocin infusion.
- D. Clean the perineal area and encourage her to breastfeed.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Massaging the fundus and expressing clots helps contract the uterus and reduce postpartum hemorrhage.
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