Nursing Elites

1. Which client is at the highest risk for developing pressure ulcers?

• A. A 50-year-old client with a fractured femur
• B. A 30-year-old client with diabetes mellitus
• C. A 65-year-old client with limited mobility
• D. A 70-year-old client with a history of stroke

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Clients with limited mobility are at the highest risk for developing pressure ulcers due to prolonged pressure on specific areas of the body. This constant pressure can lead to tissue damage and ultimately result in pressure ulcers. While age and medical conditions such as diabetes and a history of stroke can contribute to the risk of pressure ulcers, limited mobility is the most significant factor as it directly affects the ability to shift positions and relieve pressure on vulnerable areas of the body. Therefore, the 65-year-old client with limited mobility is at the highest risk compared to the other clients. The 50-year-old client with a fractured femur may have limited mobility due to the injury, but it is temporary and may not be as prolonged as chronic limited mobility. The 30-year-old client with diabetes mellitus and the 70-year-old client with a history of stroke are at risk for developing pressure ulcers, but their conditions do not directly impact their ability to shift positions and alleviate pressure like limited mobility does.

2. The nurse is caring for a client with cirrhosis of the liver. Which clinical finding is most concerning?

• A. Jaundice.
• B. Ascites.
• C. Spider angiomas.
• D. Asterixis.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Asterixis. Asterixis, also known as liver flap, is a sign of hepatic encephalopathy, a severe complication of liver disease that necessitates immediate attention. While jaundice (choice A), ascites (choice B), and spider angiomas (choice C) are common clinical findings in cirrhosis, asterixis is the most concerning due to its association with hepatic encephalopathy, which can lead to altered mental status and even coma. Jaundice, ascites, and spider angiomas are also important signs in cirrhosis, but asterixis indicates a more critical condition requiring urgent intervention.

3. What action should the nurse implement in caring for a client following an electroencephalogram (EEG)?

• A. Monitor the client's vital signs every 4 hours
• B. Assess the client's lower extremities for sensation
• C. Instruct the client to maintain bed rest
• D. Wash any paste from the client's hair and scalp

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should implement after an EEG is to wash any paste from the client's hair and scalp. This is crucial to prevent irritation and infection at the EEG site. Monitoring vital signs every 4 hours is not specifically indicated after an EEG. Assessing the client's lower extremities for sensation is unrelated to caring for a client post-EEG. While rest may be recommended after the procedure, there is no standard requirement for a specific duration of bed rest.

4. A new father asks the nurse the reason for placing an ophthalmic ointment in his newborn's eyes. What information should the nurse provide?

• A. Possible exposure to an environmental staphylococcus infection can infect the newborn's eyes and cause visual deficits
• B. The newborn is at risk for blindness from a corneal syphilitic infection acquired from a mother's infected vagina
• C. Treatment prevents tear duct obstruction with harmful exudate from a vaginal birth that can lead to dry eyes in the newborn
• D. State law mandates all newborns receive prophylactic treatment to prevent gonorrheal or chlamydial ophthalmic infection

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because informing about state law emphasizes the legal requirement and public health rationale behind prophylactic eye treatment to prevent serious infections like gonorrheal or chlamydial ophthalmic infection. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A focuses on staphylococcus infection, which is not the primary concern addressed by the prophylactic ointment. Choice B mentions a specific infection acquired from the mother's infected vagina, which is not the main reason for the ophthalmic ointment. Choice C discusses tear duct obstruction and dry eyes, which are not the primary concerns addressed by the prophylactic ointment.

5. The nurse is assessing a client with a suspected diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which clinical sign is most indicative of DVT?

• A. Redness and warmth over the affected area
• B. Decreased peripheral pulses
• C. Cyanosis of the toes
• D. Muscle cramps in the calf

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Redness and warmth over the affected area are classic signs of inflammation, which commonly occur in deep vein thrombosis (DVT) due to the obstruction of blood flow. These symptoms result from the body's inflammatory response to the blood clot. Choices B, C, and D are less indicative of DVT. Decreased peripheral pulses may occur in arterial insufficiency rather than DVT. Cyanosis of the toes indicates decreased oxygenation and is more characteristic of arterial issues. Muscle cramps in the calf are nonspecific and can be caused by various conditions, not solely DVT.

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