after morning dressing changes a male client with paraplegia contaminates his ischial decubiti dressing with diarrheal stool what is the best activity
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Adult Health Exam 1 Chamberlain

1. After morning dressing changes, a male client with paraplegia contaminates his ischial decubiti dressing with diarrheal stool. What is the best activity for the nurse to assign to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best activity for the nurse to assign to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) in this situation is to provide perianal care and collect clean linens for the dressing change. This task is crucial to maintain proper hygiene, prevent infection, and promote healing in the areas affected by decubiti. Choice A is not the priority as addressing the contamination and ensuring hygiene is more critical. Choice C is not the immediate concern and does not address the current situation. Choice D involves direct client care tasks that should be handled by licensed nursing staff.

2. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection to an adult client. Which site is the preferred location for this injection?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The ventrogluteal site is preferred for intramuscular injections in adults due to its muscle mass and lower risk of nerve injury. The deltoid muscle is more commonly used for vaccines in adults, the vastus lateralis muscle is preferred in infants and young children, and the dorsogluteal muscle is associated with a higher risk of nerve injury and is no longer recommended for intramuscular injections.

3. During a severe asthma exacerbation in a client, what is the nurse's priority?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During a severe asthma exacerbation, the nurse's priority is to administer a rescue inhaler immediately. This action helps open the airways and improve breathing, which is crucial in managing the exacerbation. Choice B, preparing for intubation, would be considered if the client's condition deteriorates and they are unable to maintain adequate oxygenation even after using the rescue inhaler. Encouraging deep breathing exercises (Choice C) may not be appropriate during a severe exacerbation as the client may struggle to breathe. While monitoring oxygen saturation levels (Choice D) is important, the immediate administration of a rescue inhaler takes precedence to address the acute breathing difficulty.

4. The nurse is assessing a client who has been receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) for several days. Which complication should the nurse monitor for?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypoglycemia. When a client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) with a high glucose content, the risk of hypoglycemia is significant due to sudden increases in insulin release in response to the glucose load. The nurse should monitor for signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia such as shakiness, sweating, palpitations, and confusion. Hyperglycemia (choice A) is not typically a complication of TPN as the high glucose content is more likely to cause hypoglycemia. Hyponatremia (choice C) and hypokalemia (choice D) are electrolyte imbalances that can occur in clients receiving TPN, but hypoglycemia is the more common and immediate concern that the nurse should monitor for.

5. The client is diagnosed with pneumonia. Which intervention is most effective in promoting airway clearance?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Encouraging increased fluid intake is the most effective intervention in promoting airway clearance for a client with pneumonia. Increasing fluid intake helps to thin respiratory secretions, making it easier for the client to clear the airways. Administering bronchodilators may help with bronchospasm but does not directly promote airway clearance. Chest physiotherapy may be beneficial but is not the first-line intervention for promoting airway clearance in pneumonia. Providing humidified oxygen can improve oxygenation but does not directly address airway clearance.

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