Nursing Elites

1. After morning dressing changes, a male client with paraplegia contaminates his ischial decubiti dressing with diarrheal stool. What is the best activity for the nurse to assign to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?

• A. Identify the need for additional supplies for an extra dressing change
• B. Provide perianal care and collect clean linens for the dressing change
• C. Document the diarrhea that necessitates an additional dressing change
• D. Position the client for access to the decubiti sites and remove dressings

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best activity for the nurse to assign to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) in this situation is to provide perianal care and collect clean linens for the dressing change. This task is crucial to maintain proper hygiene, prevent infection, and promote healing in the areas affected by decubiti. Choice A is not the priority as addressing the contamination and ensuring hygiene is more critical. Choice C is not the immediate concern and does not address the current situation. Choice D involves direct client care tasks that should be handled by licensed nursing staff.

2. A new mother is at the clinic with her 4-week-old for a well-baby check-up. The nurse should tell the mother to anticipate that the infant will demonstrate which milestone by 2 months of age?

• A. Turns from side to back and returns
• B. Consistently returns smiles to mother
• C. Finds hands and plays with fingers
• D. Holds head up and supports weight with arms

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because social smiling is a developmental milestone typically expected around 2 months of age. At this stage, infants start to engage more with their caregivers and show positive emotional responses. The other choices are incorrect. Choice A describes a motor skill that usually emerges later. Choice C involves more coordination and exploration, which is not typically seen by 2 months. Choice D relates to head control and arm strength, which also develop progressively but may not be fully achieved by 2 months.

3. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer an IM injection to an adult client. Which site is the preferred location for this injection?

• A. Deltoid muscle
• B. Vastus lateralis muscle
• C. Ventrogluteal muscle
• D. Dorsogluteal muscle

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The ventrogluteal site is the preferred site for IM injections in adults due to its muscle mass and low risk of nerve injury. The deltoid muscle, although commonly used for vaccines in adults due to easy accessibility, has a smaller muscle mass making it less ideal for IM injections. The vastus lateralis muscle is typically used in infants and young children, not in adults. The dorsogluteal site has a higher risk of injury to the sciatic nerve and is no longer recommended for IM injections in any age group.

4. A client with a diagnosis of tuberculosis (TB) is being discharged home. Which instruction is most important for the nurse to provide?

• A. Avoid close contact with others until treatment is complete.
• B. Take all prescribed medications as directed.
• C. Schedule a follow-up appointment with the healthcare provider.
• D. Wear a mask when in public places.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important instruction for a client with tuberculosis (TB) is to take all prescribed medications as directed. This is crucial to prevent the development of drug-resistant TB. While avoiding close contact with others until treatment is complete (Choice A) is important to prevent the spread of TB, ensuring the client completes the prescribed medication regimen is the priority. Scheduling a follow-up appointment (Choice C) is important for monitoring but not as critical as medication adherence. Wearing a mask in public places (Choice D) can help reduce the spread of TB but is not as essential as taking medications as prescribed.

5. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ). Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hyponatremia
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'B. Hyponatremia.' Hydrochlorothiazide can lead to electrolyte imbalances, such as hyponatremia, due to its diuretic effect. This potential adverse effect should be closely monitored in patients taking HCTZ. Choice A, hyperkalemia, is less likely to occur with HCTZ as it tends to cause hypokalemia. Choice C, bradycardia, is not a common adverse effect of HCTZ. Choice D, hyperglycemia, is also less commonly associated with HCTZ use compared to hyponatremia.

Similar Questions