Nursing Elites

1. Which atrioventricular heart block is also referred to as Mobitz II?

• A. Third-degree atrioventricular heart block
• B. Second-degree atrioventricular heart block
• C. First-degree atrioventricular heart block
• D. Complete heart block

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Second-degree atrioventricular heart block is also known as Mobitz II. In Mobitz II, some atrial impulses are blocked from reaching the ventricles, resulting in occasional dropped beats. Third-degree atrioventricular heart block is known as complete heart block, where no atrial impulses reach the ventricles. First-degree atrioventricular heart block is a condition where there is delayed conduction between the atria and ventricles but all atrial impulses are eventually conducted to the ventricles.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has cancer. The client’s adult child asks the nurse for information about the client’s treatment plan. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. I will ask your mother's primary care provider to speak with you
• B. What would you like to know about your mother's treatment?
• C. I cannot provide this information to you without your mother's consent
• D. You will have to speak directly to your mother about her treatment

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should not provide treatment information without the client's consent.

3. Which of the following is the best argument for lower patient-to-nurse ratio?

• A. The more patients a nurse has, the better the nurse will be at catching early warning signs.
• B. Greater patient-to-nurse ratios decrease patient mortality.
• C. Adequate nurse levels do not impact the prevalence of urinary tract infections.
• D. Community nursing ratios do not impact Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) rates.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best argument for lower patient-to-nurse ratios is that they decrease patient mortality. Choice A is incorrect because having more patients can lead to increased workload and decreased attention per patient. Choice C is incorrect as adequate nurse levels can indeed impact the prevalence of infections. Choice D is incorrect as community nursing ratios can impact MRSA rates due to potential transmission risks in healthcare settings.

4. What is the primary goal of public health?

• A. To focus on individual patient care
• B. To improve the health of populations
• C. To reduce healthcare costs
• D. To increase hospital admissions

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The primary goal of public health is to improve the health of populations by focusing on prevention, health promotion, and addressing the social determinants of health. Choice A is incorrect because public health looks at health from a population perspective rather than focusing on individual patient care. Choice C, while a potential benefit, is not the primary goal of public health. Choice D is incorrect as increasing hospital admissions is not a goal of public health; in fact, public health aims to prevent unnecessary hospitalizations through preventive measures.

5. A nurse reviews a client's laboratory report and notes that the client's serum phosphorus level is 2.0 mg/dL. Which condition most likely caused this serum phosphorus level?

• A. Alcoholism
• B. Renal insufficiency
• C. Hypoparathyroidism
• D. Tumor lysis syndrome

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Alcoholism. Alcoholism can lead to hypophosphatemia due to poor dietary intake and other factors. Excessive alcohol consumption can result in malnutrition, particularly a deficiency in phosphorus. Choices B, C, and D are unlikely to cause low serum phosphorus levels. Renal insufficiency is more likely to cause hyperphosphatemia, hypoparathyroidism is associated with hypocalcemia rather than hypophosphatemia, and tumor lysis syndrome typically presents with hyperphosphatemia due to the release of intracellular phosphate.

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