Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following differentiates ulcerative colitis from Crohn's disease?

• A. Crohn's disease primarily affects the left colon and rectum, while ulcerative colitis most often affects the right colon and distal ileum.
• B. Crohn's disease presents with shallow ulcerations, whereas ulcerative colitis presents with a cobblestone appearance of the mucosal lining.
• C. The extent of involvement is noncontiguous and segmented with Crohn's disease, whereas it is contiguous and diffuse with ulcerative colitis.
• D. Crohn's disease has primarily mucosal involvement, whereas it is transmural with ulcerative colitis.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Crohn's disease is characterized by noncontiguous, segmented involvement, meaning it can affect different areas with healthy tissue in between, while ulcerative colitis involves continuous areas of inflammation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because Crohn's disease can affect any part of the digestive tract from mouth to anus, can present with shallow ulcerations or deep fissures, and is transmural, meaning it affects the entire thickness of the bowel wall. On the other hand, ulcerative colitis typically affects the colon and rectum, presents with a continuous pattern of inflammation, and primarily involves the mucosal lining of the colon.

2. A charge nurse notices that two staff nurses are not taking meal breaks during their shifts. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Discuss time management strategies with the nurses
• B. Provide coverage for the nurses' breaks
• C. Determine the reasons the nurses are not taking scheduled breaks
• D. Review policies for taking scheduled breaks

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to determine the reasons the nurses are not taking scheduled breaks. This action is crucial as it allows the charge nurse to understand the underlying causes for the behavior. By identifying the reasons, the nurse can then address the root of the issue effectively. Option A is incorrect because discussing time management strategies may not address the specific reasons for not taking breaks. Option B is incorrect as providing coverage for breaks does not address the underlying cause of the issue. Option D is also incorrect as reviewing policies should come after understanding the reasons for the behavior.

3. A nurse is supervising an assistive personnel (AP) who is feeding a client who has dysphagia. Which of the following actions by the AP should the nurse identify as correct technique?

• A. Elevating the head of the client's bed to 30 degrees during mealtime
• B. Withholding fluids until the end of the meal
• C. Providing a 10-minute rest period prior to meals
• D. Instructing the client to place her chin toward her chest when swallowing

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct technique for a client with dysphagia is to instruct them to place their chin toward their chest when swallowing. This action helps to close off the airway during swallowing, reducing the risk of aspiration. Elevating the head of the client's bed to 30 degrees during mealtime helps prevent aspiration, but this is not the responsibility of the AP. Withholding fluids until the end of the meal can lead to dehydration and is not a recommended practice. Providing a 10-minute rest period prior to meals is not specifically related to improving swallowing safety for clients with dysphagia.

4. How many calories per kilogram does an average full-term infant require when the infant is around 1-2 months old?

• A. 140 calories per kilogram per day
• B. 120 calories per kilogram per day
• C. 100 calories per kilogram per day
• D. 160 calories per kilogram per day

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An average full-term infant requires about 120 calories per kilogram per day at 1-2 months old. This amount is essential for their growth and development during this critical stage. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they provide calorie amounts that are either too high or too low for an average full-term infant at 1-2 months old, which could potentially lead to health issues or inadequate nutrition.

5. Select the stage of shock that is accurately paired with its characteristic.

• A. The initial stage of shock: Hyperventilation occurs and the blood pH rises.
• B. The compensatory stage of shock: Hypoxia occurs and lactic acid rises.
• C. The progressive stage of shock: Histamine is released; fluid and proteins leak into surrounding tissues and the blood thickens.
• D. The refractory stage of shock: Potassium ions leak out; sodium ions build up, and metabolic acidosis increases.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The progressive stage of shock is accurately described as the stage where histamine is released, leading to fluid and proteins leaking into surrounding tissues and the blood thickening. In this stage, the body's compensatory mechanisms are overwhelmed, resulting in a cascade of events that worsen the shock state. Choice A is incorrect as hyperventilation and a rise in blood pH are more characteristic of the compensatory stage. Choice B is incorrect as hypoxia and a rise in lactic acid are more typical of the progressive stage. Choice D is incorrect as the described electrolyte imbalances and metabolic acidosis are more aligned with the refractory stage of shock.

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