HESI LPN
HESI Leadership and Management Test Bank
1. Which of the following differentiates ulcerative colitis from Crohn's disease?
- A. Crohn's disease primarily affects the left colon and rectum, while ulcerative colitis most often affects the right colon and distal ileum.
- B. Crohn's disease presents with shallow ulcerations, whereas ulcerative colitis presents with a cobblestone appearance of the mucosal lining.
- C. The extent of involvement is noncontiguous and segmented with Crohn's disease, whereas it is contiguous and diffuse with ulcerative colitis.
- D. Crohn's disease has primarily mucosal involvement, whereas it is transmural with ulcerative colitis.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Crohn's disease is characterized by noncontiguous, segmented involvement, meaning it can affect different areas with healthy tissue in between, while ulcerative colitis involves continuous areas of inflammation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because Crohn's disease can affect any part of the digestive tract from mouth to anus, can present with shallow ulcerations or deep fissures, and is transmural, meaning it affects the entire thickness of the bowel wall. On the other hand, ulcerative colitis typically affects the colon and rectum, presents with a continuous pattern of inflammation, and primarily involves the mucosal lining of the colon.
2. Multifetal pregnancies with triplets occur at a rate of 1 in 8,100 births, but twins occur much more frequently with a rate of:
- A. 1 in 85 births.
- B. 1 in 5400 births.
- C. 1 in 2700 births.
- D. 1 in 540 births
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 1 in 85 births. The rate of twin pregnancies is approximately 1 in 85 births. This means that twins are more common compared to triplets, which occur at a rate of 1 in 8,100 births. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not reflect the correct frequency of twin pregnancies as stated in the question.
3. Which technique or method is used to determine whether or not the patient has an irregular pulse?
- A. Apical pulse
- B. Inspection
- C. Auscultation
- D. Percussion
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An apical pulse check is used to determine if the patient has an irregular pulse. The apical pulse is located at the point of maximal impulse (PMI) and is assessed using a stethoscope. Choice B, inspection, involves visual examination and is not used to assess pulse irregularities. Choice C, auscultation, involves listening to internal sounds using a stethoscope, which can be used to assess heart sounds but not specifically for pulse irregularities. Choice D, percussion, is a technique used to assess the density of body tissues or detect abnormal masses and is not used to determine pulse irregularities.
4. A nurse enters a client room to witness an informed consent for a gastroscopy. The client states he does not understand the procedure. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Educate the client about the risks of refusing medications
- B. Complete an incident report
- C. Answer the client's question concerning the procedure
- D. Inform the provider that the client requires clarification about the procedure
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to inform the provider that the client requires clarification about the procedure. This ensures that the client fully understands the gastroscopy procedure before giving consent. Choice A is incorrect as the client's issue is not about refusing medications. Choice B is irrelevant as there is no incident to report. Choice C could be misleading as the nurse should not be providing information about the procedure but rather ensuring that the client gets the necessary clarification from the provider.
5. A clinical instructor teaches a class for the public about diabetes mellitus. Which individual does the nurse assess as being at highest risk for developing diabetes?
- A. The 50-year-old client who does not engage in any physical exercise
- B. The 56-year-old client who drinks three glasses of wine daily
- C. The 42-year-old client who is 50 pounds overweight
- D. The 38-year-old client who smokes one pack of cigarettes daily
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The 42-year-old client who is 50 pounds overweight is at the highest risk for developing diabetes. Excess weight is a significant risk factor for diabetes as it can lead to insulin resistance and metabolic abnormalities. Choices A, B, and D are also risk factors for diabetes, but being overweight has a stronger association with the development of the condition compared to lack of exercise, excessive alcohol consumption, or smoking.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access