Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following differentiates ulcerative colitis from Crohn's disease?

• A. Crohn's disease primarily affects the left colon and rectum, while ulcerative colitis most often affects the right colon and distal ileum.
• B. Crohn's disease presents with shallow ulcerations, whereas ulcerative colitis presents with a cobblestone appearance of the mucosal lining.
• C. The extent of involvement is noncontiguous and segmented with Crohn's disease, whereas it is contiguous and diffuse with ulcerative colitis.
• D. Crohn's disease has primarily mucosal involvement, whereas it is transmural with ulcerative colitis.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Crohn's disease is characterized by noncontiguous, segmented involvement, meaning it can affect different areas with healthy tissue in between, while ulcerative colitis involves continuous areas of inflammation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because Crohn's disease can affect any part of the digestive tract from mouth to anus, can present with shallow ulcerations or deep fissures, and is transmural, meaning it affects the entire thickness of the bowel wall. On the other hand, ulcerative colitis typically affects the colon and rectum, presents with a continuous pattern of inflammation, and primarily involves the mucosal lining of the colon.

2. A nurse in a prenatal clinic is caring for a group of clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse recommend for further evaluation and possible intervention?

• A. A client who is at 28 weeks gestation and has a negative Coombs titer
• B. A client who is 39 weeks of gestation and has a negative contraction stress test
• C. A client who is at 35 weeks of gestation and has a biophysical profile of 6
• D. A client who is at 37 weeks of gestation and has an L/S ratio of 2:1

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A biophysical profile of 6 at 35 weeks of gestation indicates a need for further evaluation and possible intervention. A negative Coombs titer at 28 weeks gestation (Choice A) is within normal limits. A negative contraction stress test at 39 weeks gestation (Choice B) is expected as the pregnancy nears term. An L/S ratio of 2:1 at 37 weeks of gestation (Choice D) is consistent with fetal lung maturity.

3. Which insulin has the most rapid onset of action?

• A. Lente
• B. Lispro
• C. Ultralente
• D. Humulin N

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Lispro insulin has the most rapid onset of action among the options provided. It is a rapid-acting insulin analog that is designed to control postprandial hyperglycemia effectively. Lente insulin (Choice A) and Ultralente insulin (Choice C) are intermediate-acting insulins, which have a slower onset of action compared to Lispro. Humulin N (Choice D) is a neutral protamine Hagedorn (NPH) insulin, which is an intermediate-acting insulin, not rapid-acting like Lispro. Therefore, the correct choice is Lispro.

4. A nurse is assisting with the orientation of a newly licensed nurse. The newly licensed nurse is having trouble focusing and has difficulty completing care for his assigned clients. Which of the following interventions is appropriate?

• A. Offer to provide care for his clients while he takes a break
• B. Advise him to complete less time-consuming tasks first
• C. Ask other staff members to take over some of his tasks
• D. Recommend that he take time to plan at the beginning of his shift

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention is to recommend that the new nurse takes time to plan at the beginning of his shift. Planning ahead can help improve time management and focus. Option A is not ideal as it does not address the root cause of the issue and may not promote independence. Option B may not be effective if the nurse is struggling with time management in general. Option C involves shifting responsibilities to others without addressing the new nurse's need for improvement in managing his workload, which should be the priority.

5. What is the main purpose of quality improvement in healthcare?

• A. To increase healthcare costs
• B. To improve patient outcomes
• C. To decrease patient satisfaction
• D. To increase hospital stays

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The main purpose of quality improvement in healthcare is to improve patient outcomes by enhancing the quality and safety of healthcare services. Choice A is incorrect because the goal is not to increase healthcare costs but to optimize resources and provide cost-effective care. Choice C is incorrect as the aim is to increase patient satisfaction through better outcomes. Choice D is incorrect as the objective is to reduce hospital stays by improving care efficiency and effectiveness.

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