which of the following best describes the role of a nurse in patient education
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Leadership and Management Test Bank

1. What is the role of a nurse in patient education?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Providing patients with necessary information to manage their health. Nurses play a crucial role in patient education by offering essential information to help patients understand and manage their health conditions. This empowers patients to make informed decisions about their health and improve their overall well-being. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Limiting information would hinder patient understanding and decision-making, using complex medical terminology can confuse patients, and discouraging questions goes against the essence of patient education.

2. Which of the following is a common barrier to effective communication in healthcare?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cultural differences are a common barrier to effective communication in healthcare. When individuals from different cultures interact in healthcare settings, varying communication styles, beliefs, values, and language barriers can hinder effective communication. This can lead to misunderstandings, misinterpretations, and ultimately impact the quality of care provided. Active listening (choice A) is a communication skill that helps improve understanding and can actually enhance communication. Clear language (choice C) is essential for effective communication and can help overcome barriers, rather than being a barrier itself. Empathy (choice D) is important in healthcare to understand patients' emotions and perspectives, but it is not a common barrier to effective communication.

3. A nurse caring for a group of clients reviews the electrolyte laboratory results and notes a sodium level of 130 mEq/L on one client's laboratory report. The nurse understands that which client is at highest risk for the development of a sodium value at this level?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients taking diuretics are at risk for hyponatremia due to excessive sodium loss. In this scenario, a sodium level of 130 mEq/L indicates hyponatremia, which is commonly associated with diuretic use. Options A, C, and D are not the highest risk factors for developing low sodium levels in this context. Renal failure, hyperaldosteronism, and corticosteroid use are not directly linked to sodium loss as seen with diuretics.

4. Which atrioventricular heart block is also referred to as Mobitz II?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Second-degree atrioventricular heart block is also known as Mobitz II. In Mobitz II, some atrial impulses are blocked from reaching the ventricles, resulting in occasional dropped beats. Third-degree atrioventricular heart block is known as complete heart block, where no atrial impulses reach the ventricles. First-degree atrioventricular heart block is a condition where there is delayed conduction between the atria and ventricles but all atrial impulses are eventually conducted to the ventricles.

5. Which of the following methods of insulin administration would be used in the initial treatment of hyperglycemia in a client with diabetic ketoacidosis?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: IV bolus, followed by continuous infusion. In the initial treatment of hyperglycemia in a client with diabetic ketoacidosis, insulin is administered via IV bolus to quickly reduce blood glucose levels, followed by a continuous infusion to maintain control. Subcutaneous and intramuscular routes are not used in this situation as they are not rapid or predictable enough to address the acute hyperglycemia seen in diabetic ketoacidosis. IV bolus alone without the continuous infusion may not provide sustained control of blood glucose levels, making choice C incorrect.

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