HESI LPN
HESI Test Bank Medical Surgical Nursing
1. When planning care for a client newly diagnosed with open-angle glaucoma, the nurse identifies a priority nursing problem of visual sensory/perceptual alterations. This problem is based on which etiology?
- A. Limited eye movement.
- B. Decreased peripheral vision.
- C. Blurred distance vision.
- D. Photosensitivity.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decreased peripheral vision. In open-angle glaucoma, decreased peripheral vision is a characteristic symptom resulting from increased intraocular pressure. This visual impairment can lead to sensory/perceptual alterations. Choice A, limited eye movement, is not directly associated with the pathophysiology of open-angle glaucoma. Choice C, blurred distance vision, is more commonly seen in conditions like myopia or presbyopia. Choice D, photosensitivity, is not a typical manifestation of open-angle glaucoma and is more commonly associated with conditions like migraines or certain medications.
2. What is the most effective therapy for maintaining remission of acute lymphoblastic leukemia in a child?
- A. Surgery to remove enlarged lymph nodes
- B. Long-term chemotherapy
- C. Nutritional supplements to enhance blood cell production
- D. Blood transfusions to replace ineffective red cells
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Long-term chemotherapy. In the case of acute lymphoblastic leukemia, the most effective approach for maintaining remission is long-term chemotherapy, particularly with methotrexate, a chemotherapeutic agent. Surgery to remove enlarged lymph nodes (choice A) is not the primary treatment for leukemia. Nutritional supplements (choice C) may be beneficial for overall health but are not the mainstay of leukemia treatment. Blood transfusions (choice D) are used to manage anemia in leukemia but do not address the underlying disease process.
3. A client with chronic kidney disease is receiving epoetin alfa. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the treatment?
- A. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
- B. Serum creatinine
- C. Hemoglobin and hematocrit
- D. Serum potassium
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hemoglobin and hematocrit. Epoetin alfa is a medication that stimulates red blood cell production, so monitoring hemoglobin and hematocrit levels is essential to assess its effectiveness. These values reflect the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood and can indicate if the treatment is improving anemia related to chronic kidney disease. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and serum creatinine are indicators of kidney function, while serum potassium levels are monitored due to electrolyte imbalances commonly seen in kidney disease, but they do not directly reflect the effectiveness of epoetin alfa.
4. What pathophysiologic process is producing the symptoms of gout in a client with sudden onset of big toe joint pain and swelling?
- A. Deposition of crystals in the synovial space of the joints produces inflammation and irritation.
- B. Degeneration of joint cartilage causing inflammation.
- C. Infection of the joint space leading to inflammation.
- D. Increased synovial fluid causing joint swelling and pain.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Gout is characterized by the deposition of uric acid crystals in the synovial fluid of joints, which triggers inflammation and pain. This process is known as crystal-induced arthritis. Choice B is incorrect as gout does not involve degeneration of joint cartilage. Choice C is incorrect as gout is not caused by an infection of the joint space. Choice D is incorrect as gout does not result from increased synovial fluid but rather from the deposition of uric acid crystals.
5. A client admitted with left-sided heart failure has a heart rate of 110 beats per minute and is becoming increasingly dyspneic. Which additional assessment finding by the nurse supports the client’s admitting diagnosis?
- A. Jugular vein distention.
- B. Crackles in the lung bases.
- C. Peripheral edema.
- D. Bounding peripheral pulses.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Crackles in the lung bases. Crackles in the lung bases are indicative of pulmonary congestion, which is a classic sign of left-sided heart failure. Left-sided heart failure leads to a backup of blood into the lungs, causing fluid leakage into the alveoli and resulting in crackles upon auscultation. Choices A, C, and D are less specific to left-sided heart failure. Jugular vein distention can be seen in right-sided heart failure, peripheral edema can be seen in both right and left-sided heart failure, and bounding peripheral pulses are more indicative of conditions like hyperthyroidism or anemia rather than specifically supporting left-sided heart failure.
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