Nursing Elites

1. A client who is receiving general anesthesia begins to demonstrate symptoms of malignant hyperthermia. Which intervention should the perioperative nurse prepare to implement first?

• A. Ensure patency of an indwelling catheter and measure hourly intake and output.
• B. Prepare for cessation of the anesthesia and the surgical procedure.
• C. Obtain specimens of ABGs and serum electrolytes.
• D. Initiate cooling measures using iced normal saline by nasogastric lavage.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prepare for cessation of the anesthesia and the surgical procedure. Malignant hyperthermia is a severe reaction to certain medications used during general anesthesia. The immediate intervention to manage malignant hyperthermia is to stop the triggering agents, which include anesthesia and surgery. Ensuring patency of an indwelling catheter and measuring intake and output, obtaining specimens of ABGs and serum electrolytes, and initiating cooling measures are important interventions but should follow the immediate action of stopping the anesthesia and surgery to address the life-threatening condition of malignant hyperthermia.

2. When performing postural drainage on a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), which approach should the nurse use?

• A. Obtain arterial blood gases (ABGs) before the procedure.
• B. Explain that the client may be positioned in five different ways.
• C. Assist the patient into a position that will allow gravity to move secretions.
• D. Encourage the client to practice deep breathing throughout the procedure.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct approach when performing postural drainage on a client with COPD is to assist the patient into a position that allows gravity to help move secretions. This position helps drain secretions from specific segments of the lungs. Obtaining arterial blood gases (Choice A) is not directly related to postural drainage. While the client may be placed in multiple positions during postural drainage, the key is to position them to facilitate the movement of secretions, not just any five positions as mentioned in Choice B. Encouraging deep breathing (Choice D) is a good nursing intervention for overall respiratory health but is not specifically related to the technique of postural drainage.

3. Which of the following is a priority assessment for a client receiving intravenous vancomycin?

• A. Respiratory rate
• B. Blood pressure
• C. Urine output
• D. Hearing acuity

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Hearing acuity. Vancomycin is known to cause ototoxicity, which can result in hearing loss. Monitoring the client's hearing acuity is crucial to detect any early signs of ototoxicity. Assessing respiratory rate, blood pressure, and urine output are important assessments in general patient care but are not the priority when specifically monitoring for vancomycin-induced ototoxicity.

4. In the change of shift report, the nurse is told that a client has a stage 2 pressure ulcer. Which ulcer appearance is most likely to be observed?

• A. Shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed.
• B. Intact skin with non-blanchable redness.
• C. Full-thickness tissue loss with visible fat.
• D. Full-thickness tissue loss with exposed bone, tendon, or muscle.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed.' Stage 2 pressure ulcers involve partial-thickness skin loss and typically appear as shallow open ulcers with a red-pink wound bed. Choice B describes a stage 1 ulcer, where the skin is intact but shows non-blanchable redness. Choice C describes a stage 3 ulcer, with full-thickness tissue loss exposing fat. Choice D is characteristic of a stage 4 ulcer, where there is full-thickness tissue loss exposing bone, tendon, or muscle. Therefore, option A best fits the description of a stage 2 pressure ulcer.

5. Which statement correctly explains the etiology of Down syndrome?

• A. There is an extra chromosome on the 21st pair.
• B. There is a missing chromosome on the 21st pair.
• C. There are two pairs of the 21st chromosome.
• D. The 21st chromosome pair is missing.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'There is an extra chromosome on the 21st pair.' Down syndrome is caused by the presence of an extra copy of chromosome 21, known as trisomy 21. This additional genetic material leads to the characteristics associated with Down syndrome. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Down syndrome is not due to a missing chromosome or having two pairs of the 21st chromosome; it results from the presence of an extra chromosome on the 21st pair.

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