Nursing Elites

1. A client who is receiving general anesthesia begins to demonstrate symptoms of malignant hyperthermia. Which intervention should the perioperative nurse prepare to implement first?

• A. Ensure patency of an indwelling catheter and measure hourly intake and output.
• B. Prepare for cessation of the anesthesia and the surgical procedure.
• C. Obtain specimens of ABGs and serum electrolytes.
• D. Initiate cooling measures using iced normal saline by nasogastric lavage.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prepare for cessation of the anesthesia and the surgical procedure. Malignant hyperthermia is a severe reaction to certain medications used during general anesthesia. The immediate intervention to manage malignant hyperthermia is to stop the triggering agents, which include anesthesia and surgery. Ensuring patency of an indwelling catheter and measuring intake and output, obtaining specimens of ABGs and serum electrolytes, and initiating cooling measures are important interventions but should follow the immediate action of stopping the anesthesia and surgery to address the life-threatening condition of malignant hyperthermia.

2. The health care provider is treating a child with meningitis with a course of antibiotic therapy. When should the nurse expect the child to be out of isolation?

• A. When the course of antibiotics is complete
• B. When a negative CNS culture is obtained
• C. When the antibiotics have been initiated for 24 hours
• D. When the child has no symptoms of the disease

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because a child with bacterial meningitis should be isolated for at least 24 hours until antibiotic therapy has been initiated. This period allows the antibiotics to start working against the infection, reducing the risk of spreading it to others. Choice A is incorrect because isolation is not solely based on completing the course of antibiotics; the initiation is crucial. Choice B is incorrect as waiting for a negative CNS culture may take longer and delay necessary precautions. Choice D is incorrect as symptom resolution does not guarantee the eradication of the infection and may still pose a risk of transmission.

3. When caring for a client with nephrotic syndrome, which assessment is most important for the nurse to obtain?

• A. Daily weight
• B. Vital signs
• C. Level of consciousness
• D. Bowel sounds

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Daily weight is the most important assessment to monitor fluid balance in clients with nephrotic syndrome. In nephrotic syndrome, excessive protein loss leads to fluid retention and edema. Monitoring daily weight allows the nurse to assess fluid status accurately. Vital signs, while important, may not directly reflect fluid balance changes in nephrotic syndrome. Level of consciousness and bowel sounds are not typically the primary assessments for monitoring fluid balance in clients with nephrotic syndrome.

4. Following a bout of diarrhea, which foods should be offered to the school-age child?

• A. Apricots and peaches
• B. Chocolate milk
• C. Applesauce and milk
• D. Bananas and rice

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After rehydration, it is important to offer foods that are nonirritating to the bowel to the child. Bananas and rice are considered the best options as they are least likely to irritate the gastrointestinal tract. Apricots, peaches, and applesauce are fruits that may cause GI irritation, while milk, including chocolate milk, can also be irritating to the bowel. Therefore, the optimal choice for a child recovering from diarrhea would be bananas and rice.

5. In the change of shift report, the nurse is told that a client has a stage 2 pressure ulcer. Which ulcer appearance is most likely to be observed?

• A. Shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed.
• B. Intact skin with non-blanchable redness.
• C. Full-thickness tissue loss with visible fat.
• D. Full-thickness tissue loss with exposed bone, tendon, or muscle.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed.' Stage 2 pressure ulcers involve partial-thickness skin loss and typically appear as shallow open ulcers with a red-pink wound bed. Choice B describes a stage 1 ulcer, where the skin is intact but shows non-blanchable redness. Choice C describes a stage 3 ulcer, with full-thickness tissue loss exposing fat. Choice D is characteristic of a stage 4 ulcer, where there is full-thickness tissue loss exposing bone, tendon, or muscle. Therefore, option A best fits the description of a stage 2 pressure ulcer.

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