Nursing Elites

1. When caring for a pregnant woman with cardiac problems, the nurse must be alert for the signs and symptoms of cardiac decompensation. Which critical findings would the nurse find on assessment of the client experiencing this condition?

• A. Regular heart rate and hypertension.
• B. Increased urinary output, tachycardia, and dry cough.
• C. Shortness of breath, bradycardia, and hypertension.
• D. Dyspnea, crackles, and an irregular, weak pulse.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In pregnant women with cardiac problems, signs of cardiac decompensation include dyspnea, crackles, an irregular, weak, and rapid pulse, rapid respirations, a moist and frequent cough, generalized edema, increasing fatigue, and cyanosis of the lips and nailbeds. Choice A is incorrect as a regular heart rate and hypertension are not typically associated with cardiac decompensation. Choice B is incorrect as increased urinary output and dry cough are not indicative of cardiac decompensation, only tachycardia is. Choice C is incorrect as bradycardia and hypertension are not typically seen in cardiac decompensation; dyspnea is a critical sign instead.

2. A new parent is receiving discharge teaching about car seat safety from a nurse. Which statement by the parent indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. “I should position my baby’s car seat at a 45-degree angle in the car.”
• B. “I should place the car seat rear-facing until my baby is 12 months old.”
• C. “I should place the harness snugly in a slot above my baby’s shoulders.”
• D. “I should position the retainer clip at the top of my baby’s abdomen.”

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Positioning the car seat at a 45-degree angle is crucial to prevent the baby's head from falling forward, which can obstruct the airway. Choice B is incorrect because the recommendation is to keep the car seat rear-facing until the baby reaches the height or weight limit set by the car seat manufacturer, typically beyond 12 months. Choice C is incorrect as the harness should be snugly placed at or below the baby's shoulders, not above. Choice D is incorrect as the retainer clip should be positioned at armpit level to secure the harness straps properly.

3. A newborn assessment reveals spina bifida occulta. Which maternal factor should the nurse identify as having the greatest impact on the development of this newborn complication?

• A. Tobacco use.
• B. Folic acid deficiency.
• C. Short interval between pregnancies.
• D. Preeclampsia.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Folic acid deficiency during pregnancy is strongly associated with neural tube defects like spina bifida occulta. Adequate folic acid intake before and during early pregnancy significantly reduces the risk of such complications. Tobacco use (Choice A) is linked to other adverse outcomes but not specifically spina bifida occulta. Short intervals between pregnancies (Choice C) can increase the risk of preterm birth and low birth weight but are not directly linked to spina bifida occulta. Preeclampsia (Choice D) is a hypertensive disorder that poses risks to both the mother and baby but is not the primary factor contributing to spina bifida occulta development.

4. After mitosis, the genetic code is identical in new cells unless _________ occur through radiation or other environmental influences.

• A. reductions
• B. expulsions
• C. conceptions
• D. mutations

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After mitosis, the genetic code is typically preserved and remains identical in the new cells. However, mutations can occur due to radiation or environmental influences, leading to changes in the DNA sequence and potentially altering the genetic code. Therefore, the correct answer is 'mutations.' Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because reductions, expulsions, and conceptions do not accurately describe the changes in the genetic code that can result from external factors. Mutations are the only option that reflects the alteration in the genetic code caused by external influences, making it the correct choice in this context.

5. When obtaining a health history from a client, a nurse in a woman’s health clinic should identify which of the following findings as increasing the client’s risk for developing pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)?

• A. Recurrent Cystitis
• B. Frequent Alcohol Use
• C. Use of Oral Contraceptives
• D. Chlamydia Infection

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Chlamydia infection is a significant risk factor for developing pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). PID is often caused by untreated sexually transmitted infections (STIs) like Chlamydia and Gonorrhea that ascend from the vagina to the upper reproductive organs. Recurrent cystitis (choice A) is more related to urinary tract infections, frequent alcohol use (choice B) is not directly linked to PID, and the use of oral contraceptives (choice C) does not increase the risk of developing PID.

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