Nursing Elites

1. A client with a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC) line has a fever. What client assessment is most important for the nurse to perform?

• A. Observe the PICC line site for inflammation.
• B. Encourage increasing fluid intake.
• C. Monitor blood pressure regularly.
• D. Assess skin turgor for dehydration.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to observe the PICC line site for inflammation. When a client with a PICC line develops a fever, it could indicate an infection related to the catheter. Assessing the PICC line site for signs of inflammation, such as redness, warmth, swelling, or drainage, is crucial in identifying a potential infection early. Choice B is incorrect because increasing fluid intake is not directly related to assessing a PICC line for infection. Choice C is not the most appropriate assessment in this situation as monitoring blood pressure may not directly help in identifying the cause of the fever. Choice D is unrelated to the assessment of a fever in a client with a PICC line.

2. When preparing the client for a thoracentesis, which action is essential for the nurse to take?

• A. Encourage the client to cough during the procedure
• B. Ask the client to void prior to the procedure
• C. Have the client lie in the prone position
• D. Determine if chest x-rays have been completed

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The essential action for the nurse to take when preparing a client for a thoracentesis is to ask the client to void prior to the procedure. This step is crucial as it helps prevent discomfort and reduces the risk of accidental injury. Encouraging the client to cough during the procedure (Choice A) is inappropriate as it can affect the accuracy of the thoracentesis. Having the client lie in the prone position (Choice C) is incorrect; the procedure is typically performed with the client sitting upright or slightly leaning forward. While determining if chest x-rays have been completed (Choice D) is important, ensuring the client has emptied their bladder is more critical for their comfort and safety during the procedure.

3. When caring for a client with diabetes insipidus (DI), it is most important for the nurse to include frequent assessment for which conditions in the client’s plan of care?

• A. Dry mucous membranes, hypotension
• B. Decreased appetite, headache
• C. Nausea and vomiting, muscle weakness
• D. Elevated blood pressure, petechiae

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Dry mucous membranes and hypotension are key indicators of dehydration in clients with diabetes insipidus. The excessive urination associated with DI can lead to fluid loss, resulting in dehydration. Therefore, monitoring for signs such as dry mucous membranes and hypotension is crucial to assess the client's hydration status. Choices B, C, and D are not directly related to the characteristic symptoms of DI and are less relevant in the context of this condition. Decreased appetite and headache (Choice B) are nonspecific symptoms that may occur in various conditions. Nausea, vomiting, and muscle weakness (Choice C) are not typical manifestations of DI. Elevated blood pressure and petechiae (Choice D) are not commonly associated with DI; instead, hypotension is more commonly observed due to volume depletion.

4. The nurse is assessing a 3-month-old infant who had a pylorotomy yesterday. This child should be medicated for pain based on which finding?

• A. Restlessness
• B. Clenched Fist
• C. Increased pulse rate
• D. Increased respiratory rate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In infants, restlessness can be a significant indicator of discomfort or pain, necessitating appropriate pain management. While choices B, C, and D can also be associated with pain, restlessness is a more general and reliable indicator in this scenario. A clenched fist might indicate pain or distress, but it is not as specific as restlessness in assessing pain in infants. Increased pulse rate and respiratory rate can be influenced by various factors other than pain, making them less reliable indicators of pain in this context.

5. The nurse plans to collect a 24-hour urine specimen for a creatinine clearance test. Which instruction should the nurse provide to the adult male client?

• A. Urinate at the specified time, discard this urine, and collect all subsequent urine over the next 24 hours.
• B. Cleanse around the meatus, discard the first portion of voiding, and collect the rest in a sterile bottle.
• C. For the next 24 hours, notify the nurse when the bladder is full, and the nurse will collect catheterized specimens.
• D. Urinate immediately into a urinal, and the lab will collect the specimen every 6 hours for the next 24 hours.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for the adult male client to follow when collecting a 24-hour urine specimen for a creatinine clearance test is to urinate at the specified time, discard this urine, and collect all subsequent urine over the next 24 hours. This method ensures proper collection for an accurate creatinine clearance measurement. Choice B is incorrect as it describes a different procedure for a clean-catch urine sample, not suitable for creatinine clearance. Choice C is incorrect as it suggests catheterization, which is not typically done for a creatinine clearance test, and it is not necessary for this procedure. Choice D is incorrect as it does not follow the standard procedure for a 24-hour urine collection for creatinine clearance; the urine should be collected continuously over 24 hours, not at specified intervals.

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