HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals 2023 Test Bank
1. When caring for a client receiving warfarin sodium (Coumadin), which lab test would the nurse monitor to determine therapeutic response to the drug?
- A. Bleeding time
- B. Coagulation time
- C. Prothrombin time
- D. Partial thromboplastin time
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Prothrombin time (PT). Prothrombin time is monitored to assess the therapeutic response to warfarin therapy. Warfarin works by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, which prolongs the PT. Monitoring PT helps determine if the client's blood is clotting within the desired therapeutic range. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because bleeding time, coagulation time, and partial thromboplastin time are not specifically used to monitor the therapeutic response to warfarin. Bleeding time assesses platelet function, coagulation time is a general term and not a specific test, and partial thromboplastin time is more relevant in monitoring heparin therapy, not warfarin.
2. Which condition is characterized by a progressive loss of muscle strength due to an autoimmune attack on acetylcholine receptors?
- A. Myasthenia gravis
- B. Multiple sclerosis
- C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
- D. Guillain-Barré syndrome
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Myasthenia gravis. Myasthenia gravis is characterized by muscle weakness caused by autoimmune attack on acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction. This results in impaired communication between nerves and muscles. Choice B, Multiple sclerosis, is a condition where the immune system attacks the protective myelin sheath covering the nerves in the central nervous system, leading to communication issues between the brain and the rest of the body. Choice C, Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, is a progressive neurodegenerative disease affecting motor neurons in the brain and spinal cord, not involving acetylcholine receptors. Choice D, Guillain-Barré syndrome, is an acute condition where the immune system attacks the peripheral nerves, causing muscle weakness and paralysis, but it does not target acetylcholine receptors.
3. A nurse is caring for an infant with a tentative diagnosis of hypertrophic pyloric stenosis (HPS). What is most important for the nurse to assess?
- A. Quality of the cry
- B. Signs of dehydration
- C. Coughing up feedings
- D. Characteristics of the stool
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Signs of dehydration. Assessing for signs of dehydration is crucial in infants with hypertrophic pyloric stenosis (HPS) because they are at high risk due to frequent vomiting. Dehydration can lead to serious complications if not promptly addressed. Choices A, C, and D are not the priority assessments for HPS. While the quality of the cry can provide some information on the infant's distress level, dehydration assessment takes precedence. Coughing up feedings may not be specific to HPS, and characteristics of the stool, although important in general assessments, are not the priority in this situation.
4. The nurse is obtaining a health history from parents of a 4-month-old boy with congenital hypothyroidism. What would the nurse most likely assess?
- A. The child's growth is above normal for his age.
- B. The child is active and playful.
- C. The skin appears pink and healthy.
- D. It is difficult to keep the child awake.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Congenital hypothyroidism in infants often leads to lethargy and difficulty staying awake due to low thyroid hormone levels. Assessing the child's ability to stay awake is crucial in identifying signs of hypothyroidism. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because above-normal growth, being active and playful, and having healthy-looking skin are not typical manifestations of congenital hypothyroidism. Instead, infants with hypothyroidism may exhibit poor weight gain, decreased activity, and dry, pale skin.
5. An additional defect is associated with exstrophy of the bladder. For what anomaly should the nurse assess the infant?
- A. Imperforate anus
- B. Absence of one kidney
- C. Congenital heart disease
- D. Pubic bone malformation
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Pubic bone malformation. Exstrophy of the bladder is commonly associated with pubic bone malformation as the condition involves a defect in the pelvic region. Imperforate anus, absence of one kidney, and congenital heart disease are not typically associated with exstrophy of the bladder, making them incorrect choices. Therefore, the nurse should primarily assess the infant for pubic bone malformation in this case.