Nursing Elites

1. A nurse receives a prescription for an antibiotic for a client with cellulitis. The nurse checks the client’s medical record, discovers the client's allergy to the antibiotic, and calls the provider for a different prescription. Which of the following critical thinking attitudes did the nurse demonstrate?

• A. Fairness
• B. Responsibility
• C. Risk-taking
• D. Creativity

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse demonstrated responsibility by recognizing the potential harm of administering an antibiotic the client is allergic to and taking the necessary steps to ensure the client's safety. Choice A, 'Fairness,' is not applicable in this scenario as it does not involve treating individuals equitably. Choice C, 'Risk-taking,' is incorrect as the nurse's actions aimed to minimize risks rather than taking them. Choice D, 'Creativity,' is not the best fit as the nurse's actions focused on following established protocols and ensuring patient safety rather than thinking innovatively.

2. A newly licensed nurse is preparing to administer medications to a client. The nurse notes that the provider has prescribed a medication that is unfamiliar. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Consult the medication reference book available on the unit.
• B. Administer the medication as ordered.
• C. Ask a colleague for information about the medication.
• D. Contact the provider to clarify the medication.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When encountering an unfamiliar medication, the safest action for a nurse is to consult the medication reference book available on the unit. This resource provides accurate and detailed information about medications, including indications, dosages, side effects, and nursing considerations. Administering a medication without understanding it (choice B) can lead to medication errors and harm to the client. Asking a colleague for information (choice C) may not always provide accurate or up-to-date information. Contacting the provider (choice D) should be reserved for situations where immediate clarification is needed, but consulting the reference book is the initial step to gain knowledge and ensure safe medication administration.

3. A client enters the emergency department unconscious via ambulance from the client's workplace. What document should be given priority to guide the direction of care for this client?

• A. The statement of client rights and the client self-determination act
• B. Orders written by the healthcare provider
• C. A notarized original copy of advance directives brought in by the partner
• D. The clinical pathway protocol of the agency and the emergency department

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the scenario described, when a client arrives unconscious, priority should be given to a notarized original copy of advance directives brought in by the partner. Advance directives are legal documents that specify a person's healthcare wishes and decision-making preferences in advance. These directives guide healthcare providers in delivering care according to the client's preferences when the client is unable to communicate. The statement of client rights and the client self-determination act (Choice A) are important but do not provide specific care instructions. Orders written by the healthcare provider (Choice B) may not reflect the client's wishes. Clinical pathway protocols (Choice D) are valuable but do not address the individualized care preferences of the client.

4. A healthcare professional is measuring vital signs for a client and notices an irregularity in the pulse. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

• A. Count the apical pulse rate for 1 full minute, and describe the rhythm in the chart.
• B. Recheck the pulse at the same site after 5 minutes.
• C. Measure the client’s blood pressure.
• D. Record the irregularity and continue with other vital signs.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When an irregular pulse is detected, it is essential to count the apical pulse rate for a full minute to accurately determine the rhythm. This ensures a comprehensive assessment and helps in identifying any potential issues or abnormalities. Rechecking the pulse at the same site after 5 minutes (Choice B) may not provide an immediate understanding of the irregularity. Measuring the client's blood pressure (Choice C) is important but not directly related to addressing the irregular pulse. Recording the irregularity and continuing with other vital signs (Choice D) may overlook a potentially serious cardiac issue that requires immediate attention.

5. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed a beta-blocker. Which side effect should the LPN/LVN monitor for in this client?

• A. Increased appetite
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Insomnia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct side effect that the LPN/LVN should monitor for in a client prescribed a beta-blocker is bradycardia. Beta-blockers work by slowing down the heart rate, which can lead to bradycardia as a common side effect. Monitoring the client's heart rate is crucial, as bradycardia can be a serious condition. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increased appetite, dry mouth, and insomnia are not typically associated with beta-blockers. Increased appetite is more commonly linked to certain medications like corticosteroids, dry mouth can be a side effect of anticholinergic medications, and insomnia may be a side effect of stimulant medications.

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