an adult client with severe depression was admitted to the psychiatric unit yesterday evening although the client ran one year ago his spouse states t
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Nursing Elites

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CAT Exam Practice Test

1. An adult client with severe depression was admitted to the psychiatric unit yesterday evening. Although the client used to run a year ago, his spouse states that the client no longer runs but sits and watches television most of the day. Which is most important for the nurse to include in this client’s plan of care for today?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assisting the client in identifying goals for the day is the most important aspect of the plan of care for a client with severe depression. Setting achievable daily goals helps engage the client in activities and promotes a sense of accomplishment, which can contribute to gradual improvement in their condition. Encouraging participation in team sports may be overwhelming for a client with severe depression as it requires a significant level of energy and motivation that the client may not possess at this time. Group sessions focusing on self-esteem and daily affirmations are beneficial interventions, but they may not have an immediate impact compared to setting achievable daily goals that can provide a sense of purpose and achievement for the client.

2. A client has had several episodes of clear, watery diarrhea that started yesterday. What action should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement in a client experiencing clear, watery diarrhea is to review the client's current list of medications. Certain medications can cause diarrhea as a side effect, so identifying any potential culprits is essential. Administering an antiemetic (Choice A) is not appropriate for diarrhea, as antiemetics are used to control nausea and vomiting, not diarrhea. Assessing for hemorrhoids (Choice B) is not the priority when the client is experiencing watery diarrhea; addressing the root cause is crucial. Checking the client’s hemoglobin level (Choice C) is not the immediate action needed for this situation as it does not directly address the cause of diarrhea.

3. An older adult resident of a long-term care facility has a 5-year history of hypertension. The client has a headache and rates the pain 5 on a pain scale of 0 to 10. The client’s blood pressure is currently 142/89. Which interventions should the nurse implement? (Select all that apply)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the client's blood pressure of 142/89 is within an acceptable range for someone with a history of hypertension. The client's headache with a pain rating of 5 does not warrant an immediate notification to the healthcare provider. Administering the scheduled dose of lisinopril is appropriate to manage the client's hypertension. Assessing the client for postural hypotension is relevant due to the client's age and hypertension history. Providing a PRN dose of acetaminophen for the headache is not necessary at this point as the pain level is moderate and can be managed with other interventions.

4. A client in the intensive care unit is being mechanically ventilated, has an indwelling urinary catheter in place, and is exhibiting signs of restlessness. Which action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client in the intensive care unit is mechanically ventilated, has an indwelling urinary catheter, and is restless, the priority action is to check the urinary catheter for obstruction. Restlessness in this context could be due to a blocked catheter causing discomfort or urinary retention, which needs immediate attention to prevent complications. Reviewing the heart rhythm on cardiac monitors can be important but is not the priority in this scenario. Auscultating bilateral breath sounds is also important in a ventilated client but addressing the potential immediate issue of a blocked catheter takes precedence. Giving a PRN dose of lorazepam should not be the first action without addressing the underlying cause of restlessness.

5. The nurse implements a tertiary prevention program for type 2 diabetes in a rural health clinic. Which outcome indicates that the program was effective?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because in tertiary prevention, the focus is on managing complications and providing rehabilitation. Choice B is more aligned with primary prevention as it focuses on early diagnosis. Choice C's attendance in education sessions is not a direct indicator of managing complications. Choice D's improvement in knowledge does not directly measure the program's effectiveness in managing complications.

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