an adult client with severe depression was admitted to the psychiatric unit yesterday evening although the client ran one year ago his spouse states t
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

CAT Exam Practice Test

1. An adult client with severe depression was admitted to the psychiatric unit yesterday evening. Although the client used to run a year ago, his spouse states that the client no longer runs but sits and watches television most of the day. Which is most important for the nurse to include in this client’s plan of care for today?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assisting the client in identifying goals for the day is the most important aspect of the plan of care for a client with severe depression. Setting achievable daily goals helps engage the client in activities and promotes a sense of accomplishment, which can contribute to gradual improvement in their condition. Encouraging participation in team sports may be overwhelming for a client with severe depression as it requires a significant level of energy and motivation that the client may not possess at this time. Group sessions focusing on self-esteem and daily affirmations are beneficial interventions, but they may not have an immediate impact compared to setting achievable daily goals that can provide a sense of purpose and achievement for the client.

2. The client had gastric bypass surgery yesterday. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement during the first 24 postoperative hours?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Monitoring hourly urinary output is crucial during the first 24 postoperative hours to assess kidney function, fluid balance, and early detection of complications like dehydration or inadequate kidney perfusion. Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter is not routinely necessary after gastric bypass surgery unless there are specific indications. Monitoring for an incisional hernia is important but not the highest priority in the immediate postoperative period. Instructing the client to eat small frequent meals is essential for long-term dietary management after gastric bypass surgery, but not the most critical intervention during the initial 24 hours.

3. A client is receiving lidocaine IV at 3 mg/minute. The pharmacy dispenses a 500 ml IV solution of normal saline (NS) with 2 grams of lidocaine. The nurse should regulate the infusion pump to deliver how many ml/hour?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The infusion rate is calculated based on the concentration of lidocaine and the prescribed rate of infusion. First, convert lidocaine's weight to milligrams (2 grams = 2000 mg). Then, use the formula: (Total volume in ml * dose in mg) / 60 minutes. For this case, (500 ml * 2000 mg) / 60 minutes = 45 ml/hour. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not reflect the accurate calculation based on the provided concentration and infusion rate.

4. The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD) and notes that the output flow is 100ml less than the input flow. Which actions should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this situation, the priority action for the nurse is to change the client's position. Altering the client's position can help facilitate better fluid drainage in peritoneal dialysis, potentially resolving the issue without the need for more invasive interventions. Continuing to monitor intake and output (Choice A) is important but addressing the immediate drainage issue takes precedence. Checking blood pressure and serum bicarbonate levels (Choice B) is not directly related to the observed output flow discrepancy. Irrigating the dialysis catheter (Choice C) should not be the initial action as it is more invasive and should be considered only if repositioning does not resolve the issue.

5. An adult male with a 6 cm thoracic aneurysm is being prepared for surgery. The nurse reports to the healthcare provider that the client’s blood pressure is 220/112 mmHg, so an antihypertensive agent is added to the client’s IV infusion. Which finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A tearing, sharp pain between the shoulder blades may indicate aortic dissection, a serious complication requiring immediate intervention. This symptom is highly concerning in a patient with a thoracic aneurysm. Choice B is not as urgent as the pain symptom described in choice A. Choice C could indicate hematuria but is not as critical as the potential aortic dissection in choice A. Choice D, sinus tachycardia with PVCs, may be related to the patient's condition but is not as indicative of an immediate life-threatening situation as the tearing, sharp pain indicative of aortic dissection.

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