an adult client with severe depression was admitted to the psychiatric unit yesterday evening although the client ran one year ago his spouse states t
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Nursing Elites

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CAT Exam Practice Test

1. An adult client with severe depression was admitted to the psychiatric unit yesterday evening. Although the client used to run a year ago, his spouse states that the client no longer runs but sits and watches television most of the day. Which is most important for the nurse to include in this client’s plan of care for today?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assisting the client in identifying goals for the day is the most important aspect of the plan of care for a client with severe depression. Setting achievable daily goals helps engage the client in activities and promotes a sense of accomplishment, which can contribute to gradual improvement in their condition. Encouraging participation in team sports may be overwhelming for a client with severe depression as it requires a significant level of energy and motivation that the client may not possess at this time. Group sessions focusing on self-esteem and daily affirmations are beneficial interventions, but they may not have an immediate impact compared to setting achievable daily goals that can provide a sense of purpose and achievement for the client.

2. Which client should the nurse assess frequently because of the risk for overflow incontinence?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Bedfast clients with increased serum BUN and creatinine levels are at high risk for overflow incontinence. This occurs due to decreased bladder function and reduced ability to sense bladder fullness, leading to the bladder overfilling and leaking urine. Choice B describes symptoms related to possible urinary tract infections or renal issues, but these do not directly indicate overflow incontinence. Choice C, a history of frequent urinary tract infections, may suggest other urinary issues but not specifically overflow incontinence. Choice D, a confused client who forgets to go to the bathroom, is more indicative of functional incontinence rather than overflow incontinence.

3. When taking a health history of a client admitted with acute pancreatitis, which client complaint should be expected?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Severe mid-epigastric pain after ingesting a heavy meal.' This symptom is characteristic of acute pancreatitis due to inflammation of the pancreas, which often presents with severe pain in the mid-epigastric region that may worsen after eating. Choices A, B, and D describe symptoms that are not typically associated with acute pancreatitis. A low-grade fever and left lower abdominal pain (Choice A) may be more indicative of other conditions like diverticulitis. Severe headache and sweating (Choice B) are commonly seen in conditions like migraines or infections. Dull, continuous, right lower quadrant pain and nausea (Choice D) could be suggestive of appendicitis rather than acute pancreatitis.

4. The client has silvery scaling plaques bilaterally on elbows, forearms, and palms. When scratched, the skin bleeds over these plaques. What is most important to include in this client’s plan of care?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most important aspect to include in this client's plan of care is interventions to decrease emotional stress. Psoriasis, characterized by silvery scaling plaques on the skin, can be exacerbated by emotional stress. Managing stress is crucial in controlling the condition. Precautions about avoiding sunlight are important in psoriasis management, but emotional stress has a more significant impact. While omega-3 fatty acids may provide some benefits, stress management should take priority. Applying a corticosteroid cream may help with symptoms, but addressing emotional stress is crucial for long-term management of psoriasis.

5. The healthcare provider changes a client’s medication prescription from IV to PO administration and doubles the dose. The nurse notes in the drug guide that the prescribed medication, when given orally, has a high first-pass effect and reduces bioavailability. What action should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement is to consult with the pharmacist regarding the change in prescription. With the high first-pass effect of the medication when given orally, it reduces its bioavailability, meaning a dosage adjustment may be necessary to achieve the desired therapeutic effect. Continuing to administer the medication via the IV route (choice A) is not appropriate as the prescription has been changed to oral administration. Giving half the prescribed oral dose until consulting the provider (choice B) is not recommended without proper guidance, which should come from consulting with the pharmacist. Simply administering the medication orally as prescribed (choice C) without addressing the potential issue of reduced bioavailability may lead to suboptimal treatment outcomes.

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