Nursing Elites

1. After years of struggling with weight management, a middle-aged man is evaluated for gastroplasty. He has experienced difficulty managing his diabetes mellitus and hypertension, but he is approved for surgery. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in this client’s plan of care?

• A. Monitor for signs of depression
• B. Apply sequential compression stockings
• C. Provide a wide variety of meal choices
• D. Observe for signs of depression

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Observing for signs of depression is crucial in this patient's plan of care as depression can impact his overall recovery and management post-surgery. Depression is common in individuals struggling with weight management, diabetes mellitus, and hypertension. Monitoring for urinary incontinence (Choice A) is not the priority in this case as the patient is undergoing gastroplasty for weight management, not a urinary issue. Applying sequential compression stockings (Choice B) is important for preventing deep vein thrombosis in immobile patients but is not the priority in this scenario. Providing a wide variety of meal choices (Choice C) is not the most crucial intervention at this stage, as post-gastroplasty dietary restrictions are essential for successful weight management.

2. While assessing an older client’s fall risk, the client tells the nurse that they live at home alone and have never fallen. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Place the client on a high fall risk protocol solely based on their age
• B. Continue to obtain the client data needed to complete the fall risk survey
• C. Inform the client about falls occurring more often at the hospital than at home
• D. Record a minimal risk for falls based on the client's statement alone

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse in this scenario is to continue obtaining client data to complete the fall risk survey. This approach will help in conducting a comprehensive assessment of the client's risk factors. Placing the client on a high fall risk protocol solely based on age without a thorough assessment is premature and can lead to unnecessary interventions. Informing the client about falls in the hospital does not address the client's individual risk factors and is not relevant to the current assessment. Recording a minimal risk for falls based only on the client's statement may overlook other potential risk factors that need to be evaluated.

3. After 2 days of treatment for dehydration, a child continues to vomit and have diarrhea. Normal saline is infusing, and the child’s urine output is 50ml/hour. During morning assessment, the nurse determines that the child is lethargic and difficult to arouse. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Perform a finger stick glucose test
• B. Increase the IV fluid flow rate
• C. Review 24-hour intake and output
• D. Obtain arterial blood gases

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lethargy and difficulty arousing may indicate hypoglycemia, which should be assessed before other actions. Performing a finger stick glucose test is crucial to evaluate the child's blood sugar levels and address hypoglycemia promptly. Increasing the IV fluid flow rate is not indicated without knowing the glucose status. Reviewing 24-hour intake and output is important but not the priority when lethargy and difficulty arousing are present. Obtaining arterial blood gases is not the primary assessment needed in this situation.

4. An older adult resident of a long-term care facility has a 5-year history of hypertension. The client has a headache and rates the pain 5 on a pain scale of 0 to 10. The client’s blood pressure is currently 142/89. Which interventions should the nurse implement? (Select all that apply)

• A. Administer the scheduled daily dose of lisinopril.
• B. Assess the client for postural hypotension.
• C. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
• D. Provide a PRN dose of acetaminophen for the headache.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the client's blood pressure of 142/89 is within an acceptable range for someone with a history of hypertension. The client's headache with a pain rating of 5 does not warrant an immediate notification to the healthcare provider. Administering the scheduled dose of lisinopril is appropriate to manage the client's hypertension. Assessing the client for postural hypotension is relevant due to the client's age and hypertension history. Providing a PRN dose of acetaminophen for the headache is not necessary at this point as the pain level is moderate and can be managed with other interventions.

5. A 10-year-old who has terminal brain cancer asks the nurse, 'What will happen to my body when I die?' How should the nurse respond?

• A. The heart will stop beating, and you will stop breathing.
• B. You will go to sleep and not wake up.
• C. Your body will stop functioning, and you will no longer feel pain.
• D. You will feel very tired, and your body will shut down slowly.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because it provides a truthful yet sensitive response to the child's question. Saying that the body will stop functioning and that there will be no more pain helps the child understand what to expect without unnecessary details or causing distress. Choice A is too technical and may not be suitable for a child. Choice B might give the impression of a peaceful passing, which may not always be the case. Choice D introduces the concept of feeling tired, which might not be accurate or helpful in this context.

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