after years of struggling with weight management a middle age man is evaluated for gastroplasty he has experienced difficulty with managing his diabet
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI CAT Exam

1. After years of struggling with weight management, a middle-aged man is evaluated for gastroplasty. He has experienced difficulty managing his diabetes mellitus and hypertension, but he is approved for surgery. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in this client’s plan of care?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Observing for signs of depression is crucial in this patient's plan of care as depression can impact his overall recovery and management post-surgery. Depression is common in individuals struggling with weight management, diabetes mellitus, and hypertension. Monitoring for urinary incontinence (Choice A) is not the priority in this case as the patient is undergoing gastroplasty for weight management, not a urinary issue. Applying sequential compression stockings (Choice B) is important for preventing deep vein thrombosis in immobile patients but is not the priority in this scenario. Providing a wide variety of meal choices (Choice C) is not the most crucial intervention at this stage, as post-gastroplasty dietary restrictions are essential for successful weight management.

2. A client with major depression who is taking fluoxetine calls the psychiatric clinic reporting being more agitated, irritable, and anxious than usual. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Increased agitation, irritability, and anxiety can be signs of serotonin syndrome or other serious side effects, not common side effects of fluoxetine. Instructing the client to seek medical attention immediately is crucial to address any potential serious adverse reactions. Option A is unnecessary as a CBC would not address the symptoms described. Option C is not the priority when serious side effects are suspected. Option D is incorrect as these symptoms should not be dismissed as common side effects.

3. An older male was recently admitted to the rehabilitation unit with unilateral neglect syndrome as a result of a cerebrovascular accident (CVA). Which action should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Teaching the client to turn his head from side to side for visual scanning is essential in addressing unilateral neglect syndrome caused by a cerebrovascular accident. This action helps improve visual awareness and assists the client in overcoming the neglect of one side of the body. Providing additional light for sensory stimulation (Choice A) may not directly address the issue of unilateral neglect. Placing a clock and calendar in the room (Choice C) may be helpful for orientation but does not specifically target unilateral neglect. Using hand and arm gestures for communication (Choice D) may aid in communication but does not directly address the visual scanning deficits associated with unilateral neglect syndrome.

4. When assessing a client's blood pressure and determining an auscultatory gap, which action should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When an auscultatory gap is present, comparing the palpated systolic blood pressure with the auscultated pressure is crucial. This helps to accurately measure blood pressure and detect any discrepancies caused by the gap. Assessing for lightheadedness upon standing (choice B) is unrelated to addressing an auscultatory gap. Checking the consistency between automated and manual blood pressure readings (choice C) is important for validation but not specifically for managing an auscultatory gap. Observing blood pressure changes between lying and sitting positions (choice D) is relevant for orthostatic hypotension assessment but not for dealing with an auscultatory gap.

5. Following an open reduction and internal fixation of a compound fracture of the leg, a male client complains of “a tingly sensation” in his left foot. The nurse determines the client’s left pedal pulses are diminished. Based on these findings, what is the client’s greatest risk?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Compartment syndrome is a serious condition that can occur following trauma or surgery, leading to compromised neurovascular status in the affected limb. Symptoms include pain, paresthesia (tingling sensation), and diminished pulses. If left untreated, compartment syndrome can result in tissue damage and potential loss of limb function. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly address the neurovascular compromise associated with compartment syndrome.

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