HESI LPN
Pharmacology HESI 2023
1. When administering medications to a group of clients, which client should the nurse closely monitor for the development of acute kidney injury (AKI)?
- A. Lorazepam
- B. Sucralfate
- C. Digoxin
- D. Vancomycin
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Vancomycin is known to be nephrotoxic, which means it can cause damage to the kidneys. Therefore, clients receiving Vancomycin should be closely monitored for signs and symptoms of acute kidney injury (AKI) to ensure early detection and intervention if necessary. Lorazepam, Sucralfate, and Digoxin do not typically cause acute kidney injury, so they are not the priority for monitoring in this scenario.
2. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed amlodipine. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Peripheral edema
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Increased appetite
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker commonly associated with causing peripheral edema as an adverse effect. The nurse should monitor the client for signs of swelling, particularly in the lower extremities, as it may indicate a need for dosage adjustment or further evaluation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as amlodipine is not known to cause tachycardia, bradycardia, or increased appetite as adverse effects.
3. A client with multiple sclerosis starts a new prescription, baclofen, to control muscle spasticity. Three days later, the client calls the clinic nurse and reports feeling fatigued and dizzy. Which instruction should the nurse provide?
- A. Avoid hazardous activities until symptoms subside
- B. Contact the healthcare provider immediately
- C. Continue taking the medication every day
- D. Stop taking the medication until the unpleasant side effects wear off
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to provide is to advise the client to avoid hazardous activities until the symptoms of fatigue and dizziness subside. These side effects can impair the client's ability to engage in activities that require alertness and coordination, posing a risk for accidents. Contacting the healthcare provider immediately may not be necessary unless the symptoms worsen or persist. Continuing to take the medication every day without addressing the side effects can lead to further complications. Stopping the medication abruptly without healthcare provider guidance can also be risky and may not be necessary if the symptoms improve with time.
4. A client with severe rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed adalimumab. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Increased risk of infection
- B. Bone marrow suppression
- C. Hair loss
- D. Hyperglycemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of infection. Adalimumab is known to increase the risk of infection due to its immunosuppressive effects. Patients on adalimumab should be closely monitored for signs and symptoms of infection, such as fever, chills, and malaise, and should promptly report any such symptoms to their healthcare provider for further evaluation and management. Monitoring for infection is crucial to prevent serious complications in patients receiving adalimumab therapy.
5. A client is prescribed verapamil for hypertension. The nurse should monitor the client for which common adverse effect?
- A. Constipation
- B. Headache
- C. Muscle cramping
- D. Fatigue
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Verapamil, a calcium channel blocker commonly used for hypertension, is known to cause constipation as a frequent adverse effect. This occurs due to its effects on smooth muscle relaxation in the gastrointestinal tract, leading to decreased motility. Headache, muscle cramping, and fatigue are not typically associated with verapamil use and are less common side effects. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the client for symptoms of constipation when administering verapamil.
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