HESI LPN
Pharmacology HESI 2023
1. When administering medications to a group of clients, which client should the nurse closely monitor for the development of acute kidney injury (AKI)?
- A. Lorazepam
- B. Sucralfate
- C. Digoxin
- D. Vancomycin
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Vancomycin is known to be nephrotoxic, which means it can cause damage to the kidneys. Therefore, clients receiving Vancomycin should be closely monitored for signs and symptoms of acute kidney injury (AKI) to ensure early detection and intervention if necessary. Lorazepam, Sucralfate, and Digoxin do not typically cause acute kidney injury, so they are not the priority for monitoring in this scenario.
2. A 43-year-old female client who has had a thyroidectomy due to Grave's disease is prescribed a thyroid replacement hormone. Which signs and symptoms are associated with thyroid hormone toxicity and should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider?
- A. Tinnitus and dizziness
- B. Tachycardia and chest pain
- C. Dry skin and intolerance to cold
- D. Weight gain and increased appetite
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tachycardia and chest pain. Signs and symptoms of thyroid hormone toxicity, especially in cases of excessive dosage, include tachycardia (rapid heart rate) and chest pain. These symptoms are consistent with hyperthyroidism, where the body is receiving an excessive amount of thyroid hormone. It is crucial to report these symptoms promptly to the healthcare provider to adjust the medication dosage and prevent potential complications. Choices A, C, and D are not indicative of thyroid hormone toxicity. Tinnitus and dizziness (Choice A) are not typical symptoms of thyroid hormone toxicity. Dry skin and intolerance to cold (Choice C) are more common in hypothyroidism, while weight gain and increased appetite (Choice D) are associated with hypothyroidism as well, not thyroid hormone toxicity.
3. A client has been diagnosed with open-angle glaucoma. The healthcare provider prescribes pilocarpine 1% eye drops. The nurse explains that which action of this drug makes it a useful treatment for the client's condition?
- A. The ciliary muscle contracts, increasing the outflow of aqueous humor in the eye.
- B. Ciliary muscles are paralyzed to decrease accommodation.
- C. Bilateral mydriasis with cycloplegia is accomplished.
- D. The production of aqueous humor in the eyes is decreased.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Pilocarpine, a cholinergic agent, stimulates the ciliary muscle to contract, which opens the trabecular meshwork and facilitates the outflow of aqueous humor, reducing intraocular pressure. This mechanism helps in managing open-angle glaucoma by improving drainage and lowering pressure within the eye. Choice A is correct because the contraction of the ciliary muscle increases the outflow of aqueous humor, aiding in the treatment of open-angle glaucoma. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not describe the mechanism of action of pilocarpine in treating glaucoma.
4. A client with a history of myocardial infarction is prescribed atorvastatin. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Liver damage
- B. Kidney damage
- C. Muscle pain
- D. Increased appetite
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Muscle pain. Atorvastatin can cause muscle pain, which may indicate rhabdomyolysis, a serious adverse effect. Rhabdomyolysis is a condition where muscle breakdown releases a protein (myoglobin) into the bloodstream, potentially leading to kidney damage. Liver damage (choice A) is a less common side effect of atorvastatin compared to muscle pain. Kidney damage (choice B) is not a direct adverse effect of atorvastatin but can occur indirectly if rhabdomyolysis is severe. Increased appetite (choice D) is not a known adverse effect of atorvastatin.
5. The nurse is caring for a patient with short-term persistent diarrhea. Which class of medication would the nurse anticipate giving?
- A. Lubricants
- B. Probiotics
- C. Adsorbents
- D. Anticholinergics
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Probiotics are the correct choice in this scenario as they help restore normal gut flora, which can be effective in treating diarrhea by promoting a healthy balance of bacteria in the intestines. Lubricants are used to ease bowel movements and are not indicated for treating diarrhea. Adsorbents work by binding to toxins in the gut, which is not the primary mechanism needed for treating diarrhea. Anticholinergics are more commonly used for conditions like overactive bladder and not for short-term persistent diarrhea.
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