Nursing Elites

1. A home health care nurse observes that a client with Parkinson's syndrome is experiencing increased tremors and difficulty in movement. What should the nurse do in response to this finding?

• A. Report the observed finding to the healthcare provider right away
• B. Arrange a medical evaluation so the medication dose can be adjusted
• C. Schedule a return home visit in 2 weeks to monitor
• D. Explain that this is an expected progression of Parkinson's

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with Parkinson's syndrome experiencing increased tremors and movement difficulty, arranging a medical evaluation is crucial to adjust the medication dose. This proactive approach helps in managing the symptoms effectively. Reporting the finding to the healthcare provider may delay necessary adjustments in treatment. Scheduling a return home visit in 2 weeks may not address the immediate need for medication adjustment. Explaining that the progression is expected without taking action does not address the client's worsening symptoms.

2. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed albuterol. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Nausea
• C. Dry mouth
• D. Weight gain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: A. Albuterol, a bronchodilator commonly used in COPD, can cause tachycardia as a potential side effect due to its beta-agonist properties that can stimulate the heart. Nausea (Choice B), dry mouth (Choice C), and weight gain (Choice D) are less likely associated with albuterol use. Nausea and dry mouth are not common side effects of albuterol, and weight gain is not typically linked to its use. Therefore, the nurse should primarily monitor for tachycardia when a client is prescribed albuterol for COPD.

3. A client with a history of seizures is prescribed valproic acid. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Liver toxicity
• B. Kidney stones
• C. Weight gain
• D. Pancreatitis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Valproic acid is known to cause liver toxicity as a potential adverse effect. Regular monitoring of liver function tests is crucial to detect any signs of liver damage early on and prevent serious complications. Kidney stones, weight gain, and pancreatitis are not typically associated with valproic acid use, making them incorrect choices in this scenario.

4. A client whose seizure disorder has been managed with phenytoin is admitted to the emergency department with status epilepticus. Which drug should the practical nurse anticipate being prescribed for administration to treat these seizures?

• A. Phenytoin
• B. Diazepam
• C. Phenobarbital
• D. Carbamazepine

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the management of status epilepticus, which is a life-threatening condition of prolonged seizures, rapid intervention is crucial. Diazepam is the drug of choice for treating status epilepticus due to its fast onset of action and effectiveness in stopping seizures. It acts by enhancing the inhibitory neurotransmitter GABA to suppress seizure activity quickly. Phenytoin, although used for long-term seizure control, has a slower onset of action and is not the first-line medication for managing status epilepticus.

5. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed lanthanum carbonate. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Hypercalcemia
• B. Hypocalcemia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lanthanum carbonate is prescribed in chronic kidney disease to bind dietary phosphorus in the gastrointestinal tract. This action can lead to decreased phosphorus absorption and potential hypercalcemia due to the increased serum calcium levels. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for signs and symptoms of hypercalcemia, such as confusion, fatigue, and muscle weakness. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as lanthanum carbonate's mechanism of action does not lead to hypocalcemia, hyperkalemia, or hypokalemia.

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