Nursing Elites

1. A client undergoing hemodialysis for chronic kidney disease is taking the medication erythropoietin. The nurse should reinforce instructions to explain for which reason this medication is prescribed?

• A. This drug prevents infections associated with dialysis.
• B. This drug prevents deep vein thrombosis in older clients.
• C. This drug helps stimulate the production of red blood cells.
• D. This drug helps balance the level of phosphorus in the body.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Erythropoietin is prescribed to stimulate the production of red blood cells. Clients undergoing hemodialysis often develop anemia due to end-stage renal disease. Erythropoietin helps correct this anemia by stimulating red blood cell production. It is not used to prevent infections associated with dialysis, prevent deep vein thrombosis, or balance phosphorus levels in the body.

2. Which assessment finding indicates that the expected outcome of administering donepezil to a client with Alzheimer's disease has been accomplished?

• A. Increased muscle strength and tone
• B. Fewer episodes of urinary incontinence
• C. Decreased confusion and improved mood
• D. Reversal of the disease process as evidenced by increased functioning

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Donepezil is a medication used for individuals with Alzheimer's disease. Its mechanism of action involves increasing acetylcholine levels by inhibiting its breakdown, which benefits cognitive function. The expected outcome of administering donepezil is a decrease in confusion and an improvement in mood due to the medication's impact on neurotransmitters. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because donepezil does not primarily target muscle strength, urinary incontinence, or disease reversal; instead, it aims to slow down the progression of cognitive decline in Alzheimer's disease.

3. A postoperative client has a prescription for ketorolac 30mg IV q6h. Which response demonstrates that therapeutic levels of the medication have been achieved?

• A. Observe wound drainage for a change in appearance
• B. Assess the client's calves for inflammation
• C. Perform a pain assessment using a numeric scale
• D. Measure the client's intake and output

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct response is to perform a pain assessment using a numeric scale. Ketorolac is an NSAID prescribed for pain relief. Monitoring pain levels is crucial to evaluate the therapeutic effectiveness of the medication. Pain assessment helps determine if the medication is providing adequate pain relief, indicating that therapeutic levels have been achieved.

4. Escitalopram is prescribed for a 16-year-old adolescent client who is clinically depressed. Five days later, the parent tells the practical nurse (PN) that the drug is not working because their child is not feeling any better. Which explanation should the PN provide?

• A. It takes 1 to 4 weeks for antidepressant medications to become effective.
• B. The dosage may need to be increased; I will contact your health care provider.
• C. Depression is difficult to treat with drugs alone. Therapy sessions would enhance their effectiveness.
• D. Based on your child's response to this drug, the health care provider is reviewing your medication regimen.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Antidepressant medications typically require 1 to 4 weeks to reach their full therapeutic effect. It is crucial to educate the family that during the initial week of treatment, the child may experience heightened anxiety. Therefore, it is important to wait for the medication to take its full course before assessing its effectiveness.

5. A client who received a prescription for cyclosporine ophthalmic emulsion for dry eyes asks the practical nurse (PN) if it is safe to continue using artificial tears. What information should the PN provide?

• A. Avoid using artificial tears because they decrease the efficacy of cyclosporine.
• B. Discontinue the use of both products if transient blurring occurs after administration.
• C. Allow a 15-minute interval between the administration of cyclosporine and artificial tears.
• D. Discontinue the use of cyclosporine and artificial tears when tear production reaches a normal level.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to allow a 15-minute interval between the administration of cyclosporine and artificial tears. Cyclosporine, an ophthalmic emulsion that increases tear production, can be used in conjunction with artificial tears as long as the products are administered 15 minutes apart. This interval helps to prevent any potential interactions between the two products and ensures optimal effectiveness of cyclosporine for treating dry eyes.

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