Nursing Elites

1. When a healthcare professional makes an initial assessment of a client who is post-op following gastric resection, the client's NG tube is not draining. The healthcare professional's attempt to irrigate the tube with 10ml of 0.9% NaCl was unsuccessful, so they determine that the tube was obstructed. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

• A. Notify the healthcare provider.
• B. Attempt to irrigate the tube with a larger volume of saline.
• C. Replace the NG tube with a new one.
• D. Reposition the client to see if that helps the tube drain.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: If an NG tube is obstructed and cannot be irrigated successfully, notifying the healthcare provider is the appropriate action to take for further management. This is crucial as the healthcare provider may need to assess the situation, provide guidance, or intervene with specific interventions. Attempting to irrigate the tube with a larger volume of saline (Choice B) may exacerbate the situation if the tube is truly obstructed. Replacing the NG tube with a new one (Choice C) should not be the initial action unless advised by the healthcare provider. Repositioning the client (Choice D) may not necessarily resolve the tube obstruction and should not be the primary intervention in this scenario.

2. A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is receiving a change-of-shift report for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse see first?

• A. A client who has new onset of dyspnea 24 hours after a total hip arthroplasty
• B. A client who has acute abdominal pain rated 4 on a scale from 0 to 10
• C. A client who has a UTI and low-grade fever
• D. A client who has pneumonia and an oxygen saturation of 96%

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should see the client who has new onset of dyspnea 24 hours after a total hip arthroplasty first. New onset of dyspnea, especially after surgery, can indicate a serious complication such as a pulmonary embolism or deep vein thrombosis. It is essential to assess this client promptly to rule out potentially life-threatening conditions. Acute abdominal pain, a UTI with low-grade fever, and pneumonia with an oxygen saturation of 96% are important issues but do not indicate the urgency and potential severity of a post-operative complication like pulmonary embolism or deep vein thrombosis.

3. When a nurse assigned to a manipulative client for 5 days becomes aware of feelings of reluctance to interact with the client, the next action by the nurse should be to

• A. Discuss the feeling of reluctance with an objective peer or supervisor
• B. Limit contacts with the client to avoid reinforcement of manipulative behavior
• C. Confront the client about the negative effects of behaviors on other clients and staff
• D. Develop a behavior modification plan that will promote more functional behavior

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a nurse experiences reluctance to interact with a manipulative client, it is essential to address these feelings constructively. Discussing the feeling of reluctance with an objective peer or supervisor allows the nurse to gain perspective, reflect on the situation, and develop appropriate strategies for patient care. This action promotes self-awareness, professional growth, and ensures that patient care is not compromised. Option B is incorrect because avoiding the client may not address the underlying issues and can impact the therapeutic relationship. Option C is inappropriate as confronting the client may escalate the situation and hinder effective communication. Option D is not the immediate action needed in this scenario, as it focuses on behavior modification rather than addressing the nurse's feelings of reluctance.

4. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the LPN/LVN monitor closely while the client is taking this medication?

• A. Blood glucose level
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) and INR
• C. Serum potassium level
• D. Serum creatinine level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The LPN/LVN should closely monitor Prothrombin time (PT) and INR (Choice B) levels in a client receiving warfarin. These values are crucial to ensure the medication's effectiveness and prevent complications like bleeding. Monitoring blood glucose level (Choice A) is not directly relevant to warfarin therapy. While serum potassium level (Choice C) and serum creatinine level (Choice D) are important for other conditions or medications, they are not specifically required to be monitored when a client is on warfarin.

5. The nurse is caring for a client with a urinary tract infection (UTI). Which finding should the LPN/LVN report to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Cloudy urine
• B. Burning sensation during urination
• C. Foul-smelling urine
• D. Blood in the urine

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The presence of blood in the urine in a client with a urinary tract infection (UTI) may indicate a more severe infection, such as pyelonephritis, or complications like kidney stones or bladder cancer. Therefore, this finding should be reported immediately for further evaluation and management. Cloudy urine, burning sensation during urination, and foul-smelling urine are common symptoms of UTI and may not necessarily signify an urgent need for immediate reporting compared to the presence of blood in the urine.

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