HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Exam Test Bank
1. A client has left lower atelectasis. In which of the following positions should the nurse place the client for postural drainage?
- A. Supine and low Fowler's position
- B. Right lateral in Trendelenburg position
- C. Side lying with the right side of the chest elevated
- D. Prone with pillows under the extremities
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Postural drainage is a technique used to help remove secretions from specific lung segments. For left lower atelectasis, placing the client in the right lateral Trendelenburg position is most effective. This position helps target the affected area, using gravity to assist in drainage. Placing the client in a supine or low Fowler's position (Choice A) may not effectively target the affected area. Side lying with the right side of the chest elevated (Choice C) would not utilize gravity for optimal drainage. Placing the client prone with pillows under the extremities (Choice D) is not ideal for postural drainage of the left lower lobe.
2. While caring for a client receiving parenteral fluid therapy via a peripheral IV catheter, after which of the following observations should the nurse remove the IV catheter?
- A. Swelling and coolness are observed at the IV site.
- B. The client reports mild discomfort at the insertion site.
- C. The infusion rate is slower than expected.
- D. The IV catheter is no longer needed for treatment.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Swelling and coolness at the IV site can indicate complications such as infiltration, which can lead to tissue damage or fluid leakage into the surrounding tissues. Prompt removal of the IV catheter is essential to prevent further complications. The client reporting mild discomfort at the insertion site is common during IV therapy and does not necessarily warrant catheter removal unless there are signs of infiltration. A slower than expected infusion rate may not always necessitate IV catheter removal; the nurse should troubleshoot potential causes such as kinks in the tubing or pump malfunctions first. Just because the IV catheter is no longer needed for treatment does not automatically mean it should be removed; proper assessment and monitoring for complications are still essential.
3. During an admission assessment for an older adult client, what is the priority action for the nurse after gathering data and reviewing systems?
- A. Orient the client to their room.
- B. Conduct a client care conference.
- C. Review medical prescriptions.
- D. Develop a plan of care.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The priority action for the nurse after completing the assessment and review of systems for an older adult client is to orient them to their room. This is crucial for ensuring the client's comfort and safety in the new environment. While reviewing medical prescriptions and developing a plan of care are important aspects of the admission process, they can be done after the client has been oriented to their room.
4. An adult client is found to be unresponsive during morning rounds. After checking for responsiveness and calling for help, what should the nurse do next?
- A. Check the carotid pulse
- B. Deliver 5 abdominal thrusts
- C. Give 2 rescue breaths
- D. Open the client's airway
Correct answer: D
Rationale: After confirming unresponsiveness and calling for help, the next step in basic life support is to open the client's airway. This ensures that the airway is clear and allows for effective ventilation. Checking the carotid pulse is not necessary at this stage as airway management takes precedence. Delivering abdominal thrusts is not indicated for an unresponsive client as it is for conscious choking individuals. Giving rescue breaths should only be done after ensuring the airway is open to allow for effective ventilation.
5. A PN is assigned to care for a newborn with a neural tube defect. Which dressing, if applied by the PN, would need no further intervention by the charge nurse?
- A. Telfa dressing with antibiotic ointment
- B. Moist sterile non-adherent dressing
- C. Dry sterile dressing that is occlusive
- D. Sterile occlusive pressure dressing
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Moist sterile non-adherent dressing. A moist sterile non-adherent dressing is suitable for covering a neural tube defect and would not require further intervention. This type of dressing helps prevent the dressing from sticking to the wound, minimizing trauma during dressing changes. Choice A, Telfa dressing with antibiotic ointment, is not ideal for a neural tube defect as the ointment may not be necessary and can complicate wound care. Choice C, dry sterile dressing that is occlusive, is not recommended for a neural tube defect as it may not provide the necessary environment for proper wound healing. Choice D, sterile occlusive pressure dressing, is excessive for a neural tube defect and may cause unnecessary pressure on the wound site.
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