Nursing Elites

1. A client has left lower atelectasis. In which of the following positions should the nurse place the client for postural drainage?

• A. Supine and low Fowler's position
• B. Right lateral in Trendelenburg position
• C. Side lying with the right side of the chest elevated
• D. Prone with pillows under the extremities

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Postural drainage is a technique used to help remove secretions from specific lung segments. For left lower atelectasis, placing the client in the right lateral Trendelenburg position is most effective. This position helps target the affected area, using gravity to assist in drainage. Placing the client in a supine or low Fowler's position (Choice A) may not effectively target the affected area. Side lying with the right side of the chest elevated (Choice C) would not utilize gravity for optimal drainage. Placing the client prone with pillows under the extremities (Choice D) is not ideal for postural drainage of the left lower lobe.

2. When preparing an injection for opioid medication, a nurse draws 1mL from a 2mL vial. What should the nurse do next?

• A. Ask another nurse to observe medication wastage
• B. Document the amount of medication drawn on the MAR
• C. Dispose of the remaining medication in a sharps container
• D. Administer the entire vial of medication to avoid wastage

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When drawing medication from a vial, especially for controlled substances like opioids, any wastage must be witnessed by another healthcare professional to ensure accuracy, prevent diversion, and maintain safety standards. This process is crucial for proper documentation and accountability. Recording the amount drawn on the Medication Administration Record (MAR) is important for tracking administered doses and preventing errors. Disposing of the remaining medication in a sharps container is not recommended as it does not address proper wastage documentation. Administering the entire vial of medication just to avoid wastage is inappropriate and can lead to potential harm or overdose in the patient.

3. The healthcare provider prescribes 1,000 ml of Ringer's Lactate with 30 Units of Pitocin to run over 4 hours for a client who has just delivered a 10-pound infant by cesarean section. The tubing has been changed to a 20 gtt/ml administration set. The LPN/LVN plans to set the flow rate at how many gtt/min?

• A. 42 gtt/min
• B. 83 gtt/min
• C. 125 gtt/min
• D. 250 gtt/min

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the flow rate in drops per minute (gtt/min), the formula is Total volume (mL) ÷ Time (min) ÷ Drop factor (gtt/mL). In this case, 1000 mL ÷ 240 min ÷ 20 gtt/mL = 83 gtt/min. Therefore, setting the flow rate to 83 gtt/min ensures the correct administration of the IV fluids and medication. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the correct calculation based on the provided information.

4. During a mass casualty event, a nurse is caring for multiple clients. Which of the following clients is the nurse’s priority?

• A. A client who received crush injuries to the chest and abdomen and is expected to die.
• B. A client who has a 4-inch laceration to the head.
• C. A client who has partial-thickness and full-thickness burns to his face, neck, and chest.
• D. A client who has a fractured fibula and tibia.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During a mass casualty event, the priority client for the nurse is the one with partial-thickness and full-thickness burns to the face, neck, and chest. Clients with severe burns in critical areas require immediate attention due to the potential for life-threatening complications such as airway compromise, fluid loss, and infection. Crush injuries and fractures, although serious, are generally less urgent in comparison and can be managed after addressing the burns. Therefore, the client with burns to the face, neck, and chest should be the nurse's priority over the other clients described.

5. When providing hygiene for an older-adult patient, why does the nurse closely assess the skin?

• A. Outer skin layer becomes less resilient.
• B. Less frequent bathing may be required.
• C. Skin becomes more subject to bruising.
• D. Sweat glands become less active.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Less frequent bathing may be required.' In older adults, daily bathing or using hot water and harsh soap can lead to excessively dry skin. Therefore, the nurse closely assesses the skin to determine if less frequent bathing is necessary to prevent skin dryness and maintain skin integrity. Choice A is incorrect because the outer skin layer does not become less resilient with age. Choice C is incorrect as aging skin is actually more prone to bruising due to thinning of the skin. Choice D is incorrect because sweat gland activity generally decreases with age, leading to reduced skin moisture rather than increased activity.

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