Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a client admitted to the hospital with right lower lobe (RLL) pneumonia. On assessment, the nurse notes crackles over the RLL. The client has significant pleuritic pain and is unable to take in a deep breath in order to cough effectively.

• A. Impaired gas exchange related to acute infection and sputum production
• B. Ineffective airway clearance related to sputum production and ineffective cough
• C. Ineffective breathing pattern related to acute infection
• D. Anxiety related to hospitalization and role conflict

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client's inability to effectively clear the airway due to pain and sputum production hinders the cough mechanism, making 'Ineffective airway clearance' the most appropriate nursing diagnosis. Although impaired gas exchange may occur due to the pneumonia, the immediate issue is the inability to clear the airway. 'Ineffective breathing pattern' does not address the specific issue of airway clearance. 'Anxiety' is not the priority when the focus should be on the physical complications of pneumonia.

2. A client with a history of hypertension is receiving enalapril (Vasotec). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Hypercalcemia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperkalemia. Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, can lead to hyperkalemia as a side effect. ACE inhibitors can cause potassium retention by inhibiting aldosterone secretion, which may result in elevated potassium levels. Hypoglycemia (choice B) is not typically associated with enalapril use. Hypercalcemia (choice C) is also not a common side effect of enalapril. Hypokalemia (choice D) is the opposite of what is expected with enalapril, as it tends to cause potassium retention.

3. Which of the following tools is used by community health nurses to identify the health needs of a population?

• A. Health survey
• B. Medical records
• C. Patient interviews
• D. Epidemiological studies

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Epidemiological studies are used by community health nurses to identify the health needs of a population. These studies involve investigating patterns, causes, and effects of health and disease conditions in defined populations. While health surveys, medical records, and patient interviews are valuable tools in healthcare, epidemiological studies provide a broader population-based perspective essential for understanding and addressing community health needs.

4. What does the infant mortality rate measure?

• A. dying for every thousand of the population
• B. dying from 0-5 years old in every thousand population
• C. dying in the first 4 weeks in every thousand children born alive that year
• D. dying before 1 year old in every thousand children born alive that year

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The infant mortality rate measures the number of deaths occurring before 1 year old per 1000 live births. This is a crucial indicator of a population's health status and access to healthcare for infants. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the infant mortality rate specifically focuses on deaths within the first year of life, not the entire population or different age ranges.

5. A client with HIV/AIDS is receiving zidovudine (Retrovir). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Hyperglycemia
• B. Anemia
• C. Hypertension
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Anemia. Zidovudine (Retrovir) can cause bone marrow suppression, leading to anemia. Monitoring for signs of anemia, such as fatigue, pallor, and shortness of breath, is crucial. Choice A, Hyperglycemia, is not a common adverse effect of zidovudine. Choice C, Hypertension, is not directly associated with zidovudine use. Choice D, Hypercalcemia, is also not a typical adverse effect of zidovudine.

Similar Questions