HESI LPN
Community Health HESI Practice Questions
1. After 3 days, the nurse notes that James has chest indrawing and stridor. His mother returned him to the health center immediately. The nurse should:
- A. Change the antibiotic to second-line antibiotics
- B. Advise the mother to observe the child and continue giving the antibiotics
- C. Give the first dose of antibiotics and refer urgently
- D. Observe the child at the center
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Chest indrawing and stridor are signs of severe respiratory distress. In this situation, immediate referral is essential. Giving the first dose of antibiotics before referral can help initiate treatment, but urgent referral for further evaluation and management is crucial. Choice A is incorrect because simply changing the antibiotic without assessing the severity of the symptoms and providing urgent care is not appropriate. Choice B is incorrect as advising the mother to observe the child and continue antibiotics delays necessary intervention for a potentially life-threatening condition. Choice D is incorrect as observing the child at the center is not sufficient when signs of severe illness are present.
2. The nurse is planning care for a client with pneumococcal pneumonia. Which of the following would be most effective in removing respiratory secretions?
- A. Administration of cough suppressants
- B. Increasing oral fluid intake to 3000 cc per day
- C. Maintaining bed rest with bathroom privileges
- D. Performing chest physiotherapy twice a day
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Increasing oral fluid intake to 3000 cc per day is the most effective in removing respiratory secretions in a client with pneumococcal pneumonia. Adequate hydration helps thin secretions, making them easier to expectorate. Administration of cough suppressants (Choice A) may hinder the removal of secretions by suppressing the cough reflex. Maintaining bed rest with bathroom privileges (Choice C) is important but does not directly address the removal of respiratory secretions. Performing chest physiotherapy (Choice D) is beneficial for mobilizing secretions but may not be as effective as increasing fluid intake in thinning and facilitating the removal of secretions.
3. Which of these tests with frequency would the nurse expect to monitor for the evaluation of clients with poor glycemic control in persons aged 18 and older?
- A. A glycosylated hemoglobin (A1c) should be performed during an initial assessment and during follow-up assessments, which should occur at no longer than 3-month intervals
- B. A glycosylated hemoglobin should be obtained at least twice a year
- C. A fasting glucose and a glycosylated hemoglobin should be obtained at 3-month intervals after the initial assessment
- D. A glucose tolerance test, a fasting glucose, and a glycosylated hemoglobin should be obtained at 6-month intervals after the initial assessment
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Glycosylated hemoglobin (A1c) testing every 3 months is recommended for clients with poor glycemic control to monitor their average blood sugar levels and adjust treatment as necessary. Choice A is correct as it aligns with the guideline of performing A1c testing every 3 months. Choice B is incorrect because testing at least twice a year may not provide adequate monitoring for clients with poor glycemic control. Choice C is incorrect as it only mentions testing at 3-month intervals without specifying the importance of A1c testing. Choice D is incorrect as it includes unnecessary tests like glucose tolerance test and does not emphasize the importance of more frequent A1c monitoring for clients with poor glycemic control.
4. The healthcare provider would expect which eating disorder to have the greatest fluctuations in potassium?
- A. Binge eating disorder
- B. Anorexia nervosa
- C. Bulimia
- D. Purge syndrome
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bulimia. Bulimia involves cycles of binge eating and purging, where individuals may induce vomiting or use laxatives and diuretics. These purging behaviors can lead to significant fluctuations in potassium levels due to electrolyte imbalances caused by excessive loss of potassium through vomiting and purging. In contrast, Binge eating disorder (A) does not involve purging behaviors, so it is less likely to cause significant potassium fluctuations. Anorexia nervosa (B) is characterized by severe food restriction rather than purging, leading to a different pattern of electrolyte imbalances. Purge syndrome (D) is not a recognized eating disorder and is not associated with specific patterns of potassium fluctuations seen in bulimia.
5. What title should be given to this occupational health nurse job description? A registered nurse with expertise in health promotion, illness and injury prevention, risk reduction, and adult learning principles.
- A. case manager
- B. health educator
- C. nurse consultant
- D. health promotion specialist
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'D: health promotion specialist.' This title aligns with the described expertise in health promotion, illness and injury prevention, and risk reduction. A health promotion specialist focuses on promoting health and preventing illnesses, which directly corresponds to the skills mentioned in the job description. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. A 'case manager' typically focuses on coordinating patient care, 'health educator' specifically emphasizes educating individuals on health topics, and a 'nurse consultant' offers expert advice and support in the nursing field but may not specialize in health promotion and risk reduction as required in this job description.
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