Nursing Elites

1. After 3 days, the nurse notes that James has chest indrawing and stridor. His mother returned him to the health center immediately. The nurse should:

• A. Change the antibiotic to second-line antibiotics
• B. Advise the mother to observe the child and continue giving the antibiotics
• C. Give the first dose of antibiotics and refer urgently
• D. Observe the child at the center

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Chest indrawing and stridor are signs of severe respiratory distress. In this situation, immediate referral is essential. Giving the first dose of antibiotics before referral can help initiate treatment, but urgent referral for further evaluation and management is crucial. Choice A is incorrect because simply changing the antibiotic without assessing the severity of the symptoms and providing urgent care is not appropriate. Choice B is incorrect as advising the mother to observe the child and continue antibiotics delays necessary intervention for a potentially life-threatening condition. Choice D is incorrect as observing the child at the center is not sufficient when signs of severe illness are present.

2. A client with chronic congestive heart failure should be instructed to contact the home health nurse if which finding occurs?

• A. Weight gain of 2 pounds or more in a 48-hour period
• B. Urinating 4 to 5 times a day
• C. A significant decrease in appetite
• D. Appearance of non-pitting ankle edema

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A rapid weight gain of 2 pounds or more in a 48-hour period may indicate fluid retention and worsening heart failure, requiring prompt medical evaluation and intervention. This finding is crucial in managing chronic congestive heart failure as it signifies a potential exacerbation of the condition. Choices B, C, and D are less concerning in this context. Urinating 4 to 5 times a day is within the normal range for most individuals and may not be directly related to heart failure. A significant decrease in appetite may be due to various factors and might not be an immediate cause for concern in heart failure patients. The appearance of non-pitting ankle edema, although related to heart failure, is a more chronic and less urgent symptom when compared to a rapid weight gain, which requires immediate attention.

3. The nurse manager has a nurse employee who is suspected of having a problem with chemical dependency. Which intervention would be the best approach by the nurse manager?

• A. Confront the nurse about the suspicions in a private meeting
• B. Schedule a staff conference, without the nurse present
• C. Consult the human resources department about the issue and needed actions
• D. Counsel the employee to resign to avoid investigation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Consulting with human resources is the best approach in this situation. It ensures that the issue is handled according to the organization's policies and that the nurse receives the appropriate support and intervention needed for chemical dependency. Confronting the nurse directly may lead to defensiveness and hinder a constructive resolution. Scheduling a staff conference without the nurse present can create unnecessary speculation and violate the employee's privacy. Counseling the employee to resign is not appropriate and does not address the underlying problem of chemical dependency.

4. An infant weighed 7 pounds 8 ounces at birth. If growth occurs at a normal rate, what would be the expected weight at 6 months of age?

• A. Double the birth weight
• B. Triple the birth weight
• C. Gain 6 ounces each week
• D. Add 2 pounds each month

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Double the birth weight.' Infants typically double their birth weight by 6 months of age. This is a common milestone in healthy infant growth and development. Choice B is incorrect because tripling the birth weight would be excessive and not in line with normal growth patterns. Choice C, 'Gain 6 ounces each week,' is not accurate as infant growth is not linear each week. Choice D, 'Add 2 pounds each month,' is also incorrect as this rate of growth would be too rapid and unrealistic for healthy infant development.

5. With an alert of an internal disaster and the need for beds, the charge nurse is asked to list clients who are potential discharges within the next hour. Which client should the charge nurse select?

• A. An elderly client who has had type 2 diabetes for over 20 years, admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis 24 hours ago
• B. An adolescent admitted the prior night with Tylenol intoxication
• C. A middle-aged client with an internal automatic defibrillator and complaints of 'passing out at unknown times' admitted yesterday
• D. A school-age child diagnosed with suspected bacterial meningitis and was admitted at the change of shifts

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) that is being well-managed and has shown improvement within 24 hours is more stable and can be considered for discharge sooner than those with more acute or unstable conditions. Choice B is incorrect as Tylenol intoxication may require further monitoring and intervention. Choice C is incorrect as a client with an automatic defibrillator and episodes of passing out needs careful evaluation and monitoring. Choice D is incorrect as suspected bacterial meningitis is a serious condition that typically requires a longer hospital stay for treatment and observation.

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