HESI LPN
CAT Exam Practice Test
1. When should the nurse conduct an Allen’s test?
- A. When obtaining pulmonary artery pressures
- B. To assess for the presence of a deep vein thrombus in the leg
- C. Just before arterial blood gases are drawn peripherally
- D. Prior to attempting a cardiac output calculation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct time to conduct an Allen’s test is just before arterial blood gases are drawn peripherally. This test is performed to assess the adequacy of collateral circulation in the hand before obtaining arterial blood gases. Choice A is incorrect because an Allen’s test is not specifically done when obtaining pulmonary artery pressures. Choice B is incorrect because an Allen’s test is not used to assess deep vein thrombosis. Choice D is incorrect because an Allen’s test is not done specifically before attempting a cardiac output calculation.
2. In preparing to administer a scheduled dose of intravenous furosemide (Lasix) to a client with heart failure, the nurse notes that the client’s B-Type Naturetic peptide (BNP) is elevated. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Measure the client’s oxygen saturation before taking further action
- B. Administer a PRN dose of nitroglycerin (Nitrostat)
- C. Administer the dose of furosemide as scheduled
- D. Hold the dose of furosemide until contacting the healthcare provider
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Elevated BNP levels in a client with heart failure may indicate worsening heart failure. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to take when encountering an elevated BNP before administering furosemide is to hold the dose and contact the healthcare provider for further guidance. This precaution is necessary to ensure the client's safety and prevent potential complications. Options A and B are incorrect as they do not address the issue of the elevated BNP, which is crucial in this situation. Option C is also incorrect because administering furosemide without consulting the healthcare provider could be harmful if the client's condition is deteriorating.
3. The nurse is preparing to administer an IM injection to a 6-month-old child. Which injection site is best for the nurse to use?
- A. Vastus lateralis
- B. Deltoid
- C. Ventrogluteal
- D. Dorsogluteal
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The vastus lateralis is the preferred site for IM injections in infants due to their limited muscle mass and safety. Infants do not have well-developed muscle mass, making the vastus lateralis the best option for IM injections. The deltoid muscle is typically used for older children and adults. Ventrogluteal and dorsogluteal sites are not recommended for infants due to safety concerns, including the risk of damaging the sciatic nerve. Therefore, the correct choice is the vastus lateralis for IM injections in infants.
4. An adult male with a 6 cm thoracic aneurysm is being prepared for surgery. The nurse reports to the healthcare provider that the client’s blood pressure is 220/112 mmHg, so an antihypertensive agent is added to the client’s IV infusion. Which finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Reports a tearing, sharp pain between his shoulder blades
- B. Blood pressure reading of 200/100 mmHg 15 minutes later
- C. Rose-colored urine draining from the urinary catheter
- D. Sinus tachycardia with frequent premature ventricular beats (PVC)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A tearing, sharp pain between the shoulder blades may indicate aortic dissection, a serious complication requiring immediate intervention. This symptom is highly concerning in a patient with a thoracic aneurysm. Choice B is not as urgent as the pain symptom described in choice A. Choice C could indicate hematuria but is not as critical as the potential aortic dissection in choice A. Choice D, sinus tachycardia with PVCs, may be related to the patient's condition but is not as indicative of an immediate life-threatening situation as the tearing, sharp pain indicative of aortic dissection.
5. The healthcare provider is evaluating a client for potential dehydration. Which assessment finding is most indicative of fluid volume deficit?
- A. Moist mucous membranes
- B. Increased urine output
- C. Decreased skin turgor
- D. Elevated blood pressure
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Decreased skin turgor is a classic sign of dehydration. When someone is dehydrated, the skin loses its elasticity and becomes less turgid. This change is easily assessed by gently pinching and pulling up the skin on the back of the hand or forearm. If the skin remains elevated or tents rather than quickly returning to its normal position, it indicates dehydration. Moist mucous membranes (Choice A) are actually a sign of adequate hydration. Increased urine output (Choice B) can be a sign of dehydration, but decreased skin turgor is a more specific indicator. Elevated blood pressure (Choice D) is not typically associated with fluid volume deficit and may indicate other health issues.
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