during the administration of albuterol per nebulizer the client complains of shakiness the clients vital signs are heart rate 120 beatsminute respirat
Logo

Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI CAT Exam Quizlet

1. During the administration of albuterol per nebulizer, the client complains of shakiness. The client’s vital signs are heart rate 120 beats/minute, respirations 20 breaths/minute, blood pressure 140/80. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Shakiness is a known side effect of albuterol, which can often be managed without the need for additional medications. Educating the client about the potential side effects of albuterol, including shakiness, helps them understand what to expect and how to manage these effects. Administering an anxiolytic (Choice A) is not indicated as shakiness related to albuterol is not a sign of anxiety. Obtaining a 12-lead electrocardiogram (Choice B) is not necessary based on the client's presentation of shakiness and vital signs. Stopping the albuterol administration and restarting in 30 minutes (Choice C) may not be necessary since shakiness is a common side effect that can often be managed without interrupting the treatment.

2. A young adult client was admitted 36 hours ago for a head injury that occurred as a result of a motorcycle accident. In the last 4 hours, the client’s urine output has increased to over 200 ml/hour. Before reporting the finding to the healthcare provider, which intervention should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to evaluate the urine osmolality and serum osmolality values. The increased urine output following a head injury could indicate diabetes insipidus, a condition characterized by excessive urination and extreme thirst. Evaluating osmolality is crucial for diagnosing diabetes insipidus. Choice A is incorrect because obtaining capillary blood samples for glucose every 2 hours is not the priority in this situation. Choice B is irrelevant to the client's current symptom of increased urine output. Choice D is also not the most appropriate intervention as the focus should be on assessing for a potential endocrine issue related to the increased urine output.

3. Which techniques should be used to administer an intradermal (ID) injection for a Mantoux test to screen for tuberculosis (TB)? Select all that apply.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Observing for an intradermal bleed after the antigen is injected is a proper technique for an ID injection. This is important to confirm the correct placement of the injection. Choice B is correct because the recommended site for an ID injection for a Mantoux test is the volar surface of the forearm. Choice C is incorrect because the standard needle size for an ID injection is usually 26 or 27 gauge with a length of 1/4 to 5/8 inches, not 25 gauge with a length of 1/2 inch. Choice D is incorrect because the needle should be inserted into the skin with the bevel facing up, not down.

4. In what sequence should the nurse prepare the dose of insulin for a client whose finger stick glucose is 210 mg/dl and is receiving a sliding scale dose of short-acting insulin before breakfast?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct sequence for preparing a dose of insulin involves ensuring proper aseptic technique. First, clean the vial's rubber stopper with an alcohol swab to prevent contamination. Second, withdraw the correct dose of insulin to be administered. Lastly, inject air equal to the insulin dose into the vial to maintain proper pressure for withdrawing the medication. This sequence ensures the medication is prepared safely and accurately. Choice A is correct as it follows this sequence. Choices B, C, and D present incorrect sequences that may compromise patient safety by not following the correct aseptic technique. Choice B injects air into the vial before withdrawing insulin, which is incorrect. Choice C reverses the order of withdrawing insulin and injecting air. Choice D withdraws the insulin before injecting air, which can affect the pressure inside the vial and lead to inaccurate dosing.

5. A male client with schizophrenia is jerking his neck and smacking his lips. Which finding indicates to the nurse that he is experiencing an irreversible side effect of antipsychotic agents?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Worming movements of the tongue. Worming movements of the tongue, known as tardive dyskinesia, are an irreversible side effect of antipsychotic medications. Tardive dyskinesia is characterized by involuntary, repetitive movements of the tongue, lips, face, trunk, and extremities. Cramping muscular pain (Choice A) is more indicative of dystonia, an extrapyramidal side effect that can be treated effectively with antiparkinsonian medications. Decreased tendon reflexes (Choice C) are not typically associated with irreversible side effects of antipsychotic agents. Dry oral mucous membranes (Choice D) are not specific to irreversible side effects of antipsychotic medications.

Similar Questions

A 10-year-old who has terminal brain cancer asks the nurse, 'What will happen to my body when I die?' How should the nurse respond?
What information is most important for the nurse to provide to an adolescent female prescribed azithromycin for lower lobe pneumonia and recurrent chlamydia?
The mother of a school-age child calls the school to ask when her daughter can return to school after treatment for Pediculosis capitis. What is the nurse’s best response?
A client is admitted to the intensive care unit with diabetes insipidus due to a pituitary gland tumor. Which potential complication should the nurse monitor closely?
The client who had a below-the-knee (BKA) amputation is being prepared for discharge to home. Which recommendation should the nurse provide this client?

Access More Features

HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses