during the administration of albuterol per nebulizer the client complains of shakiness the clients vital signs are heart rate 120 beatsminute respirat
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI CAT Exam Quizlet

1. During the administration of albuterol per nebulizer, the client complains of shakiness. The client’s vital signs are heart rate 120 beats/minute, respirations 20 breaths/minute, blood pressure 140/80. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Shakiness is a known side effect of albuterol, which can often be managed without the need for additional medications. Educating the client about the potential side effects of albuterol, including shakiness, helps them understand what to expect and how to manage these effects. Administering an anxiolytic (Choice A) is not indicated as shakiness related to albuterol is not a sign of anxiety. Obtaining a 12-lead electrocardiogram (Choice B) is not necessary based on the client's presentation of shakiness and vital signs. Stopping the albuterol administration and restarting in 30 minutes (Choice C) may not be necessary since shakiness is a common side effect that can often be managed without interrupting the treatment.

2. In Duchenne muscular dystrophy, if a child has a Gower sign, what behavior should the nurse expect the child to exhibit?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The Gower sign is a characteristic finding in Duchenne muscular dystrophy where a child uses hands to walk up the legs when standing from a sitting position due to proximal muscle weakness. This behavior is indicative of the child trying to compensate for weak hip and thigh muscles. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not describe the specific behavior associated with the Gower sign. Muscular atrophy, contractures of both hips, and an unsteady gait with foot slapping are not directly related to the Gower sign.

3. A high school football player comes to the clinic complaining of severe acne. The mother reports recent behavior changes, including irritability and suspiciousness of friends. The nurse’s assessment reveals an elevated blood pressure. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the high school football player presenting with severe acne, behavior changes, elevated blood pressure, and suspicion of friends suggests the possible use of anabolic steroids. Anabolic steroid use can lead to such symptoms. Therefore, the nurse should first inquire about the possible use of anabolic steroids to address the root cause of the presenting issues. Encouraging the client to see a dermatologist (Choice A) may be necessary but addressing the underlying cause is crucial first. Referring the adolescent to a substance abuse program (Choice B) is premature without confirming steroid use. Suggesting a low-salt, low-fat, and caffeine-free diet (Choice C) is not the priority in this situation where a serious issue like anabolic steroid use needs immediate attention.

4. On admission to the Emergency Department, a female client who was diagnosed with bipolar disorder 3 years ago reports that this morning she took a handful of medications and left a suicide note for her family. Which information is most important for the nurse to obtain?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Identifying the specific medications taken during a suicide attempt is crucial for determining the appropriate treatment and assessing the potential toxicity or interactions. This information helps healthcare providers initiate the necessary interventions promptly. Option A is not as critical as knowing the medications used. Option B focuses on the timing of the last medication intake rather than the specific drugs taken for the overdose. Option D, while relevant, does not provide immediate actionable information compared to identifying the substances involved in the suicide attempt.

5. A premature infant weighing 1,200 grams at birth receives a prescription for beractant (Survanta) 120 mg endotracheal now and q6 hr for 24 hr. The recommended dose for beractant is 100 mg/kg birth weight per dose. Single-use vials of Survanta are labeled 100 mg/4 ml. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to give 4.8 ml q6 hr. To calculate the dose, you divide the prescribed dose of 120 mg by the concentration of Survanta, which is 100 mg per 4 ml. This results in 4.8 ml per dose, as 120 mg ÷ 100 mg/4 ml = 4.8 ml. Option B suggesting to notify the healthcare provider that the dose is too high is incorrect because the calculated dose of 4.8 ml is based on the recommended dose of 100 mg/kg birth weight. Option C suggesting to notify the healthcare provider that the dose is too low is incorrect as the calculated dose is based on the correct dosage calculation. Option D suggesting to give 1.2 ml q6 hr is incorrect because it doesn't align with the correct calculation.

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