Nursing Elites

1. What should be the primary focus of nursing care in the transitional phase of labor for a client who anticipates an unmedicated delivery?

• A. Assessing the strength of uterine contractions
• B. Re-evaluating the need for medication
• C. Reminding her to push 3 times with each contraction
• D. Assisting her to maintain control

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During the transitional phase of labor, which is the most intense phase, the primary focus of nursing care for a client who anticipates an unmedicated delivery should be assisting her to maintain control. This is essential to help her manage the intense pain and anxiety associated with this phase without the use of medication. Assessing the strength of uterine contractions (Choice A) is important but not the primary focus during the transitional phase. Re-evaluating the need for medication (Choice B) is not applicable as the client anticipates an unmedicated delivery. Reminding her to push 3 times with each contraction (Choice C) is more related to the pushing stage of labor and not the transitional phase.

2. A client who is 24 weeks gestation arrives at the clinic reporting swollen hands. On examination, the nurse notes the client has had a rapid weight gain over six weeks. Which action should the nurse implement next?

• A. Review the client's previous blood pressures in the chart.
• B. Obtain the client's blood pressure.
• C. Observe and time the client's contractions.
• D. Examine the client for pedal edema.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Swollen hands and rapid weight gain could be signs of preeclampsia, so the next step is to check the client's blood pressure. Elevated blood pressure is a key indicator in assessing for preeclampsia in pregnancy. Reviewing the client's previous blood pressures may provide additional context but obtaining the current blood pressure is crucial for immediate assessment. Observing and timing contractions are not relevant in this scenario as the client is not presenting with signs of active labor. Examining for pedal edema is important in assessing for fluid retention, but obtaining the blood pressure takes precedence in this case due to the potential seriousness of preeclampsia.

3. A healthcare professional is planning care for a full-term newborn who is receiving phototherapy. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional include in the plan of care?

• A. Dress the newborn in lightweight clothing.
• B. Avoid using lotion or ointment on the newborn's skin.
• C. Keep the newborn supine throughout treatment.
• D. Measure the newborn's temperature every 8 hours.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a newborn is receiving phototherapy, it is important to avoid using lotions or ointments on their skin as these products can lead to skin irritation and burns under the phototherapy lights. Dressing the newborn in lightweight clothing helps ensure proper exposure to the phototherapy lights. Keeping the newborn supine during treatment helps maximize exposure to the light. However, the key consideration in this scenario is to prevent skin irritation and burns by avoiding lotions or ointments.

4. When assessing a woman in the first stage of labor, which clinical finding will alert the nurse that uterine contractions are effective?

• A. Dilation of the cervix.
• B. Descent of the fetus to –2 station.
• C. Rupture of the amniotic membranes.
• D. Increase in bloody show.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During the first stage of labor, effective uterine contractions lead to cervical dilation. Dilation of the cervix is a key indicator that uterine contractions are progressing labor. Descent of the fetus to -2 station (Choice B) is related to the fetal position in the pelvis and not a direct indicator of uterine contraction effectiveness. Rupture of the amniotic membranes (Choice C) signifies the rupture of the fluid-filled sac surrounding the fetus and does not directly reflect uterine contraction effectiveness. An increase in bloody show (Choice D) can be a sign of impending labor, but it is not a direct indicator of uterine contraction effectiveness.

5. When both of the alleles for a trait, such as hair color, are the same, the person is said to be _____ for that trait.

• A. monozygous
• B. dizygous
• C. homozygous
• D. hemizygous

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A person is homozygous for a trait when they have two identical alleles for that trait. In this case, both alleles are the same, indicating a homozygous genotype. Choice A, 'monozygous,' is incorrect as it refers to identical twins originating from a single fertilized egg. Choice B, 'dizygous,' is also incorrect as it refers to fraternal twins or individuals that develop from two separate fertilized eggs. Choice D, 'hemizygous,' is incorrect because it describes a genetic condition where only one allele is present in a diploid organism, typically related to genes on the sex chromosomes.

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