Nursing Elites

1. A client at 38 weeks of gestation has a prescription for intravaginal misoprostol. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

• A. “You will need to stay in a side-lying position for 30 minutes after each dose.”
• B. “You will receive an IV infusion of oxytocin 1 hour after your last dose.”
• C. “You will receive a magnesium supplement immediately following therapy.”
• D. “You will need to have a full bladder before the therapy begins.”

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Instructing the client to stay in a side-lying position after receiving misoprostol intravaginally is essential. This position helps keep the medication in place, allowing for better absorption. Choice B is incorrect because oxytocin administration is not typically indicated after misoprostol use. Choice C is incorrect as magnesium supplementation is not part of the standard protocol for misoprostol administration. Choice D is incorrect as having a full bladder is not necessary before initiating misoprostol therapy.

2. A client at 38 weeks gestation is admitted to labor and delivery with a complaint of contractions 5 minutes apart. While the client is in the bathroom changing into a hospital gown, the nurse hears the noise of a baby. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Push the call light for help
• B. Inspect the client's perineum
• C. Notify a healthcare provider
• D. Turn on the infant warmer

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Inspecting the client's perineum immediately is necessary to assess if the baby is being delivered, which would require urgent action. Pushing the call light for help (Choice A) may delay the assessment and immediate action needed. Notifying a healthcare provider (Choice C) might cause further delays, as the situation requires urgent attention. Turning on the infant warmer (Choice D) is not the priority; ensuring safe delivery and assessment of the baby's condition come first.

3. A client at 20 weeks of gestation has trichomoniasis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Thick, White Vaginal Discharge
• B. Urinary Frequency
• C. Vulvar Lesions
• D. Malodorous Discharge

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Malodorous discharge is a common symptom of trichomoniasis caused by the Trichomonas vaginalis parasite. It is typically described as frothy, greenish-yellow, and malodorous. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect findings associated with other conditions. Thick, white vaginal discharge is more characteristic of a yeast infection; urinary frequency may be seen in urinary tract infections; and vulvar lesions are commonly seen in herpes simplex virus infections.

4. What is the highest priority nursing intervention when admitting a pregnant woman who has experienced a bleeding episode in late pregnancy?

• A. Assessing FHR and maternal vital signs.
• B. Performing a venipuncture for hemoglobin and hematocrit levels.
• C. Placing clean disposable pads to collect any drainage.
• D. Monitoring uterine contractions.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The highest priority nursing intervention when admitting a pregnant woman who has experienced a bleeding episode in late pregnancy is to assess the fetal heart rate (FHR) and maternal vital signs. This assessment is crucial in determining the extent of blood loss and its impact on both the mother and the fetus. Ensuring the well-being of both the mother and the fetus is the top priority in this situation. While obtaining hemoglobin and hematocrit levels is important, it can be done after the initial assessment. Placing clean disposable pads is necessary for managing any drainage but does not take precedence over assessing vital signs. Monitoring uterine contractions is important but is not the highest priority when compared to assessing the FHR and maternal vital signs.

5. Preconception counseling is crucial for the safe management of diabetic pregnancies. Which complication is commonly associated with poor glycemic control before and during early pregnancy?

• A. Frequent episodes of maternal hypoglycemia
• B. Congenital anomalies in the fetus
• C. Hydramnios
• D. Hyperemesis gravidarum

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Preconception counseling is essential as strict metabolic control before conception and in the early weeks of gestation helps reduce the risk of congenital anomalies. Frequent episodes of maternal hypoglycemia usually occur during the first trimester due to hormonal changes, affecting insulin production and use, rather than before conception. Hydramnios is more common in diabetic pregnancies, typically seen in the third trimester, not during early pregnancy. Hyperemesis gravidarum, although it may lead to hypoglycemic events, is related to decreased food intake and glucose transfer to the fetus, exacerbating hypoglycemia rather than being directly associated with poor glycemic control before and during early pregnancy.

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