Nursing Elites

1. What nursing diagnosis is the most appropriate for a woman experiencing severe preeclampsia?

• A. Risk for injury to mother and fetus, related to central nervous system (CNS) irritability.
• B. Risk for altered gas exchange.
• C. Risk for deficient fluid volume, related to increased sodium retention secondary to the administration of magnesium sulfate.
• D. Risk for increased cardiac output, related to the use of antihypertensive drugs.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most appropriate nursing diagnosis for a woman experiencing severe preeclampsia is 'Risk for injury to mother and fetus, related to central nervous system (CNS) irritability.' Severe preeclampsia poses a significant risk of injury to both the mother and the fetus due to complications such as seizures, stroke, and placental abruption. 'Risk for altered gas exchange' is not the priority diagnosis as pulmonary edema is more common in severe preeclampsia. 'Risk for deficient fluid volume' is incorrect as sodium retention in severe preeclampsia often leads to fluid overload. 'Risk for increased cardiac output' is also incorrect as antihypertensive drugs are used to reduce cardiac output in this condition.

2. During a prenatal visit, for which of the following clients should the nurse auscultate the fetal heart rate?

• A. A client who has an ultrasound confirming a molar pregnancy
• B. A client who has a crown-rump length corresponding to 7 weeks gestation
• C. A client who has a positive urine pregnancy test 1 week after missed menses
• D. A client who has felt quickening for the first time

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because feeling quickening typically occurs around 18-20 weeks of gestation, indicating fetal movement. This is an appropriate time to auscultate the fetal heart rate. Choice A is incorrect because a molar pregnancy is not a viable pregnancy, and auscultating the fetal heart rate in this case is not applicable. Choice B is incorrect because a crown-rump length of 7 weeks gestation is too early for fetal heart rate auscultation. Choice C is incorrect because a positive urine pregnancy test alone does not indicate the appropriate timing for fetal heart rate auscultation.

3. A client with preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate by continuous IV infusion. Which finding should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Blood pressure 148/94 mm Hg
• B. Respiratory rate 14/min
• C. Urinary output 20 mL/hr
• D. 2+ deep tendon reflexes

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with preeclampsia receiving magnesium sulfate, a urinary output of 20 mL/hr is a concerning finding as it may indicate renal impairment or magnesium toxicity. Adequate urinary output is crucial for eliminating excess magnesium and preventing toxicity. The nurse should report this finding to the provider for further evaluation. A blood pressure of 148/94 mm Hg is elevated but expected in a client with preeclampsia. A respiratory rate of 14/min is within the normal range. 2+ deep tendon reflexes are a common finding in clients receiving magnesium sulfate and are not a cause for concern unless they progress to hyperreflexia or clonus.

4. The nurse is providing care for a newborn who was delivered vaginally assisted by forceps. The nurse observes red marks on the head with swelling that does not cross the suture line. Which condition should the nurse document in the medical record?

• A. Caput succedaneum
• B. Hydrocephalus
• C. Cephalhematoma
• D. Microcephaly

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is Cephalhematoma. Cephalhematoma is a collection of blood between the skull bone and periosteum that does not cross the suture line. It often occurs due to birth trauma, such as forceps delivery, leading to localized swelling. Caput succedaneum (Choice A) is diffuse swelling of the scalp that may cross suture lines and is typically present at birth. Hydrocephalus (Choice B) is an abnormal accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid within the brain's ventricles. Microcephaly (Choice D) is a condition characterized by a smaller than average head size and may be present at birth or develop later in infancy.

5. When do mothers usually feel the first fetal movements during pregnancy?

• A. At 18-20 weeks
• B. During the first month
• C. Rarely
• D. Never

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Mothers usually feel the first fetal movements, known as 'quickening,' around the 18th to 20th week of pregnancy. Feeling fetal movements during the first month is unlikely and uncommon. Therefore, option B is incorrect. Options C and D are also incorrect as mothers typically do feel fetal movements during pregnancy, just not during the first month.

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