Nursing Elites

1. What nursing diagnosis is the most appropriate for a woman experiencing severe preeclampsia?

• A. Risk for injury to mother and fetus, related to central nervous system (CNS) irritability.
• B. Risk for altered gas exchange.
• C. Risk for deficient fluid volume, related to increased sodium retention secondary to the administration of magnesium sulfate.
• D. Risk for increased cardiac output, related to the use of antihypertensive drugs.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most appropriate nursing diagnosis for a woman experiencing severe preeclampsia is 'Risk for injury to mother and fetus, related to central nervous system (CNS) irritability.' Severe preeclampsia poses a significant risk of injury to both the mother and the fetus due to complications such as seizures, stroke, and placental abruption. 'Risk for altered gas exchange' is not the priority diagnosis as pulmonary edema is more common in severe preeclampsia. 'Risk for deficient fluid volume' is incorrect as sodium retention in severe preeclampsia often leads to fluid overload. 'Risk for increased cardiac output' is also incorrect as antihypertensive drugs are used to reduce cardiac output in this condition.

2. A newborn is 1 hour old with a respiratory rate of 50/min, a heart rate of 130/min, and an axillary temperature of 36.1°C (97°F). Which of the following actions should be taken?

• A. Give the newborn a warm bath.
• B. Apply a cap to the newborn's head.
• C. Reposition the newborn.
• D. Obtain an oxygen saturation level.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Applying a cap to the newborn's head is the correct action in this scenario. Newborns are at risk of heat loss due to their high surface area to volume ratio, and maintaining their body temperature is crucial to prevent hypothermia. Giving a warm bath can further increase heat loss and is not recommended. Repositioning the newborn may not address the primary concern of temperature regulation. While monitoring oxygen saturation is important, addressing thermal regulation takes precedence in this situation.

3. A client has experienced a fetal demise following a vaginal delivery at term. What should the nurse advise the client?

• A. “You can bathe and dress your baby if you’d like to.”
• B. “If you don’t hold the baby, it will make letting go much harder.”
• C. “You should name the baby so he/she can have an identity.”
• D. “I’m sure you will be able to have another baby when you’re ready.”

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After a fetal demise, allowing the parents to bathe and dress their baby can offer them a sense of closure and help them in their grieving process. This act can provide a tangible way for the parents to bond with their baby and create lasting memories. Option B is incorrect because each individual may have different emotional needs and holding the baby may not be appropriate or helpful for everyone. Option C, while well-intentioned, may not be suitable for all parents as naming the baby could be emotionally challenging. Option D is insensitive as it overlooks the grieving process of losing a baby by suggesting a replacement.

4. A nurse on an antepartum unit is reviewing the medical records for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?

• A. A client who has diabetes mellitus and an HbA1c of 5.8%
• B. A client who has preeclampsia and a creatinine level of 1.1 mg/dL
• C. A client who has hyperemesis gravidarum and a sodium level of 110 mEq/L
• D. A client who has placenta previa and a hematocrit of 36%

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A sodium level of 110 mEq/L is critically low and can indicate severe dehydration and electrolyte imbalance, requiring immediate intervention.

5. A 25-year-old gravida 3, para 2 client gave birth to a 9-pound, 7-ounce boy 4 hours ago after augmentation of labor with oxytocin (Pitocin). She presses her call light and asks for her nurse right away, stating 'I’m bleeding a lot.' What is the most likely cause of postpartum hemorrhage in this client?

• A. Retained placental fragments.
• B. Unrepaired vaginal lacerations.
• C. Uterine atony.
• D. Puerperal infection.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Uterine atony is the most likely cause of bleeding 4 hours after delivery, especially after delivering a macrosomic infant and augmenting labor with oxytocin. Uterine atony is characterized by the inability of the uterine muscles to contract effectively after childbirth, leading to excessive bleeding. The other options, such as retained placental fragments (A), unrepaired vaginal lacerations (B), and puerperal infection (D), are less likely causes of postpartum hemorrhage in this scenario. Retained placental fragments can cause bleeding, but this typically presents earlier than 4 hours postpartum. Unrepaired vaginal lacerations would likely be evident sooner and not typically result in significant bleeding. Puerperal infection is not a common cause of immediate postpartum hemorrhage unless there are other signs of infection present.

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