HESI LPN
HESI Maternity 55 Questions
1. What nursing diagnosis is the most appropriate for a woman experiencing severe preeclampsia?
- A. Risk for injury to mother and fetus, related to central nervous system (CNS) irritability.
- B. Risk for altered gas exchange.
- C. Risk for deficient fluid volume, related to increased sodium retention secondary to the administration of magnesium sulfate.
- D. Risk for increased cardiac output, related to the use of antihypertensive drugs.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most appropriate nursing diagnosis for a woman experiencing severe preeclampsia is 'Risk for injury to mother and fetus, related to central nervous system (CNS) irritability.' Severe preeclampsia poses a significant risk of injury to both the mother and the fetus due to complications such as seizures, stroke, and placental abruption. 'Risk for altered gas exchange' is not the priority diagnosis as pulmonary edema is more common in severe preeclampsia. 'Risk for deficient fluid volume' is incorrect as sodium retention in severe preeclampsia often leads to fluid overload. 'Risk for increased cardiac output' is also incorrect as antihypertensive drugs are used to reduce cardiac output in this condition.
2. When transferring a postoperative client from the PACU following abdominal surgery, what action should the nurse take to move the client from the stretcher to the bed?
- A. Lock the wheels on both the bed and stretcher
- B. Adjust the bed to a low position
- C. Ask the client to assist in the transfer
- D. Use a transfer sheet without locking the wheels
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Locking the wheels on both the bed and stretcher is crucial for ensuring stability during the transfer process. This action is essential to prevent unexpected movement of the bed or stretcher, reducing the risk of injury to the client and facilitating a safe transfer. Adjusting the bed to a low position is important for the client's comfort and safety but does not directly address the immediate need for stability during the transfer. Asking the client to assist in the transfer may not be feasible immediately postoperatively, depending on their condition and the type of surgery they underwent. Using a transfer sheet without locking the wheels can introduce potential safety hazards as the bed or stretcher may move during the transfer, undermining the stability needed for a safe and effective transfer.
3. A woman has experienced iron deficiency anemia during her pregnancy. She had been taking iron for 3 months before the birth. The client gave birth by cesarean 2 days earlier and has been having problems with constipation. After assisting her back to bed from the bathroom, the nurse notes that the woman’s stools are dark (greenish-black). What should the nurse’s initial action be?
- A. Perform a guaiac test and record the results.
- B. Recognize the finding as abnormal and report it to the primary health care provider.
- C. Recognize the finding as a normal result of iron therapy.
- D. Check the woman’s next stool to validate the observation.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The nurse should recognize that dark stools are a common side effect in clients who are taking iron replacement therapy. Dark stools are a known, expected result of iron supplementation and are not indicative of a complication unless other symptoms of GI bleeding are present. A guaiac test would be necessary if there were concerns about gastrointestinal bleeding. Recognizing dark stools as a consequence of iron therapy is an essential nursing assessment skill and does not require immediate reporting. Checking the next stool to confirm the observation is unnecessary as the presence of dark stools in this context is already an expected outcome of iron supplementation.
4. During a manic episode, what is the most appropriate intervention to implement first for a client with bipolar disorder?
- A. Engage the client in a quiet activity
- B. Provide a structured environment with minimal stimulation
- C. Monitor the client continuously
- D. Adjust the lighting and noise levels
Correct answer: B
Rationale: During a manic episode, individuals with bipolar disorder may experience sensory overload and agitation. Providing a structured environment with minimal stimulation is the most appropriate initial intervention as it can help reduce overwhelming sensory input and promote a sense of calm. Engaging the client in a quiet activity (Choice A) may not be effective if the environment is still overstimulating. Continuous monitoring (Choice C) is important but may not be the first intervention needed. Adjusting lighting and noise levels (Choice D) can be helpful but may not address the core issue of sensory overload and agitation during a manic episode.
5. The parents of a 2-year-old child tell the nurse that they are having difficulty disciplining their child. What is the nurse’s most appropriate response?
- A. “This is a challenging age for your child right now.”
- B. “Could you elaborate on your challenges? I’m not clear on what you mean.”
- C. “It’s important to be consistent with toddlers when they need discipline.”
- D. “I understand your concern. This phase is often referred to as the 'terrible twos'.”
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most appropriate response for the nurse is to emphasize the importance of consistency in discipline when dealing with toddlers. Toddlers are at a stage where they are exploring boundaries and learning what behaviors are acceptable. By being consistent, parents can help reinforce these boundaries and teach appropriate behaviors effectively. Choices A, B, and D do not provide specific guidance on how to address the discipline issue effectively. While acknowledging the challenges of this age (Choice A) and empathizing with the parents (Choice D) are important, the key point in this scenario is to highlight the significance of consistency in discipline (Choice C).