what nursing diagnosis is the most appropriate for a woman experiencing severe preeclampsia
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HESI Maternity 55 Questions

1. What nursing diagnosis is the most appropriate for a woman experiencing severe preeclampsia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most appropriate nursing diagnosis for a woman experiencing severe preeclampsia is 'Risk for injury to mother and fetus, related to central nervous system (CNS) irritability.' Severe preeclampsia poses a significant risk of injury to both the mother and the fetus due to complications such as seizures, stroke, and placental abruption. 'Risk for altered gas exchange' is not the priority diagnosis as pulmonary edema is more common in severe preeclampsia. 'Risk for deficient fluid volume' is incorrect as sodium retention in severe preeclampsia often leads to fluid overload. 'Risk for increased cardiac output' is also incorrect as antihypertensive drugs are used to reduce cardiac output in this condition.

2. Following an amniocentesis, a nurse is caring for a client. The nurse should observe the client for which of the following complications?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After an amniocentesis, the nurse should monitor the client for potential complications, with hemorrhage being a significant concern due to the invasive nature of the procedure. Hyperemesis (severe vomiting), proteinuria (excessive protein in the urine), and hypoxia (low oxygen levels) are not typically associated with amniocentesis and are less likely to occur compared to hemorrhage, which is a more common complication that requires prompt recognition and intervention.

3. In the Ballard Gestational Age Assessment Tool, the nurse determines that a 15-month-old infant has a gestational age of 42 weeks. Based on this finding, which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Late preterm infants, such as those with a gestational age of 42 weeks, are at higher risk for hypoglycemia due to immature metabolic regulation. Monitoring capillary blood glucose is crucial to detect and manage hypoglycemia promptly. Providing blow-by oxygen (Choice A) is not indicated for an infant at risk for hypoglycemia. Drawing arterial blood gases (Choice C) is not the primary intervention for assessing hypoglycemia. Applying a pulse oximeter to the foot (Choice D) is not directly related to monitoring blood glucose levels in this context.

4. A nurse on an antepartum unit is reviewing the medical records for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A sodium level of 110 mEq/L is critically low and can indicate severe dehydration and electrolyte imbalance, requiring immediate intervention.

5. A client experiencing preterm labor is being taught about terbutaline by a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Terbutaline is a beta-adrenergic agonist used to stop preterm labor. One of its common side effects is heart palpitations due to its action on beta receptors in the heart. Choices B and C are incorrect because blurred vision and ringing in the ears are not common side effects of terbutaline. Choice D is irrelevant to the side effects of terbutaline.

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