Nursing Elites

1. What is the primary purpose of administering Rho(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM) to an Rh-negative mother after childbirth?

• A. To prevent Rh sensitization in future pregnancies
• B. To treat anemia in the newborn
• C. To increase the mother's white blood cell count
• D. To prevent infection in the newborn

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: To prevent Rh sensitization in future pregnancies. RhoGAM is given to an Rh-negative mother to prevent the development of antibodies against Rh-positive blood cells. This prevents Rh sensitization, which could lead to hemolytic disease in future Rh-positive pregnancies. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because RhoGAM is not used to treat anemia in the newborn, increase the mother's white blood cell count, or prevent infection in the newborn.

2. A client has a prescription for a transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulator (TENS) unit for pain management during the postoperative period following a lumbar laminectomy. Which information should the nurse reinforce about the action of this adjuvant pain modality?

• A. The discharge of electricity will distract the client's focus from the pain
• B. An infusion of medication in the spinal canal will block pain perception
• C. Pain perception in the cerebral cortex is dulled by the unit's discharge of an electrical stimulus
• D. A mild electrical stimulus on the skin surface closes the gates of nerve conduction for severe pain

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. TENS works by delivering a mild electrical stimulus to the skin, which can help close the 'gates' in the nervous system to block pain signals from reaching the brain, thus reducing pain perception. Choice A is incorrect because TENS does not distract from pain but rather helps manage it. Choice B is incorrect as it describes a different pain management technique involving medication in the spinal canal. Choice C is incorrect because TENS acts peripherally on nerve conduction rather than dulling pain perception in the cerebral cortex.

3. The PN is caring for a client who had an acute brain attack with resulting expressive aphasia and urinary incontinence. To ensure care for the client, which task should the PN delegate to the UAP?

• A. Explain how to use a communication board
• B. Document progress in the use of the communication board
• C. Encourage voiding by assisting the client to the bedside commode
• D. Establish a bladder training schedule and methods

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Assisting the client to the bedside commode is an appropriate task for the UAP as it involves basic patient care and mobility assistance, which are within the UAP's scope of practice. Options A and B involve communication techniques and documentation, which are more appropriate for licensed nursing staff. Option D involves establishing a bladder training schedule, which requires assessment and planning skills beyond the UAP's role.

4. A client who is at full-term gestation is in active labor and complains of a cramp in her leg. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Massage the calf and foot
• B. Elevate the leg above the heart
• C. Check the pedal pulse in the affected leg
• D. Extend the leg and flex the foot

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client in active labor complaining of a leg cramp is to extend the leg and flex the foot. This action helps stretch the muscles that are cramping, providing relief. Massaging the calf and foot (Choice A) may not be as effective for relieving the cramp. Elevating the leg above the heart (Choice B) is not indicated for a leg cramp. Checking the pedal pulse in the affected leg (Choice C) is unrelated to addressing the leg cramp.

5. The nurse is providing care for a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus who is receiving NPH insulin. The nurse notices that the client's evening glucose levels are consistently above 260 mg/dl. What does this indicate?

• A. States that her feet are constantly cold and feel numb
• B. A wound on the ankle that starts to drain and becomes painful
• C. Consecutive evening serum glucose greater than 260 mg/dl
• D. Reports nausea in the morning but still able to eat breakfast

Correct answer: C

Rationale: High evening glucose levels suggest that the current insulin dosage may be inadequate to control the client's blood sugar levels effectively. This indicates poor glycemic control and the need for a possible adjustment in the insulin regimen. Option A describes symptoms of peripheral neuropathy, which are not directly related to the elevated glucose levels but may be a long-term complication of diabetes. Option B describes a wound infection, which is not directly related to the client's high glucose levels. Option D mentions morning nausea, which could be due to various causes and is not directly related to the high evening glucose levels.

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