Nursing Elites

1. A client who had an abdominal hysterectomy is experiencing minimal urine output despite adequate fluid intake. What should the nurse assess first?

• A. The client's bladder for distension.
• B. The IV catheter insertion site.
• C. The patency of the urinary catheter.
• D. The client's vital signs.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Assessing the patency of the urinary catheter is crucial in this situation. A blocked catheter could be a common cause of decreased urine output following surgery. While checking the IV catheter insertion site (Choice B) is important, it is not the priority in this case. Examining the client's bladder for distension (Choice A) is relevant, but assessing the patency of the catheter takes precedence in resolving the issue of decreased urine output. Monitoring vital signs (Choice D) is a routine nursing task but not the priority when dealing with decreased urine output post-surgery.

2. Which hormone is primarily responsible for the regulation of calcium and phosphate in the blood?

• A. Parathyroid hormone
• B. Insulin
• C. Cortisol
• D. Thyroxine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Parathyroid hormone is the correct answer. It regulates calcium and phosphate levels in the blood by increasing calcium reabsorption in the kidneys and releasing calcium from bones. Insulin is involved in glucose metabolism, not calcium and phosphate regulation. Cortisol is a stress hormone and is not primarily responsible for regulating calcium and phosphate levels. Thyroxine is a thyroid hormone that primarily regulates metabolism, not calcium and phosphate in the blood.

3. A client post-coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) surgery is concerned about the risk of infection. What is the most important preventive measure the nurse should emphasize during discharge teaching?

• A. Avoid touching the incision sites with bare hands.
• B. Take all prescribed antibiotics as directed.
• C. Report any signs of infection to the healthcare provider immediately.
• D. Keep the incision sites clean and dry.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Keep the incision sites clean and dry.' After CABG surgery, maintaining the cleanliness and dryness of the incision sites is crucial to prevent infections. This practice reduces the risk of introducing harmful microorganisms to the surgical wound, promoting healing and preventing complications. Option A, while important, does not fully encompass the preventive measures necessary to avoid infections post-surgery. Option B is significant if antibiotics are prescribed, but ensuring cleanliness directly addresses infection prevention. Option C is reactive and focuses on addressing infection after it occurs, rather than proactively preventing it.

4. A nurse is assisting in the admission of a young adult female Korean exchange student with acute abdominal pain. When asked about her sexual activity, she looks away. What should the nurse do?

• A. Omit this question from the assessment form
• B. Ask her if she would like an interpreter present to assist with communication
• C. Reword the question to ensure the client's understanding
• D. Watch the client's response when asked a different question

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Observing the client's response to a different question can help gauge her comfort level and understanding, which is essential in culturally sensitive care. By watching her response to a different question, the nurse can assess if the discomfort is related to the specific question or a broader issue. Omitting the question may result in missing crucial information. Asking about an interpreter assumes that the language barrier is the only issue, which may not be the case. Rewording the question may not address the underlying discomfort and could still lead to misinterpretation.

5. At 1200, the practical nurse learns that a client's 0900 dose of an anticonvulsant was not given. The next scheduled dose is at 2100. Which action should the PN take?

• A. Administer half of the missed dose immediately
• B. Administer the missed dose as soon as possible
• C. Give the missed dose with the next scheduled dose
• D. Withhold the missed dose unless seizure activity occurs

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering the missed dose as soon as possible is crucial in this situation. Missing an anticonvulsant dose can lead to breakthrough seizures, which are harmful to the client. Administering the missed dose promptly helps maintain the therapeutic level of the medication and reduces the risk of seizure activity. Giving half the dose may not provide adequate protection against seizures. Delaying the dose until the next scheduled time increases the time the client is without the medication, potentially increasing the risk of seizures. Withholding the missed dose unless seizure activity occurs is not recommended, as prevention is key in managing anticonvulsant therapy.

Similar Questions