Nursing Elites

1. During a manic episode, what is the most appropriate intervention to implement first for a client with bipolar disorder?

• A. Engage the client in a quiet activity
• B. Provide a structured environment with minimal stimulation
• C. Monitor the client continuously
• D. Adjust the lighting and noise levels

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a manic episode, individuals with bipolar disorder may experience sensory overload and agitation. Providing a structured environment with minimal stimulation is the most appropriate initial intervention as it can help reduce overwhelming sensory input and promote a sense of calm. Engaging the client in a quiet activity (Choice A) may not be effective if the environment is still overstimulating. Continuous monitoring (Choice C) is important but may not be the first intervention needed. Adjusting lighting and noise levels (Choice D) can be helpful but may not address the core issue of sensory overload and agitation during a manic episode.

2. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer an IM injection to an adult client. Which site is the preferred location for this injection?

• A. Deltoid muscle
• B. Vastus lateralis muscle
• C. Ventrogluteal muscle
• D. Dorsogluteal muscle

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The ventrogluteal site is the preferred site for IM injections in adults due to its muscle mass and low risk of nerve injury. The deltoid muscle, although commonly used for vaccines in adults due to easy accessibility, has a smaller muscle mass making it less ideal for IM injections. The vastus lateralis muscle is typically used in infants and young children, not in adults. The dorsogluteal site has a higher risk of injury to the sciatic nerve and is no longer recommended for IM injections in any age group.

3. The nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of myocardial infarction (MI). Which intervention is a priority during the acute phase?

• A. Administer morphine for pain relief.
• B. Encourage the client to perform isometric exercises.
• C. Position the client flat in bed.
• D. Restrict fluid intake.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering morphine is a priority intervention during the acute phase of myocardial infarction (MI). Morphine not only provides pain relief but also reduces myocardial oxygen demand, which is crucial in this situation. Choice B is incorrect because isometric exercises can increase myocardial oxygen demand and are not recommended during the acute phase of MI. Choice C is incorrect as elevating the head of the bed, not keeping the client flat, is preferred to reduce workload on the heart. Choice D is incorrect because fluid intake should be encouraged unless contraindicated, as adequate hydration is essential for cardiac function.

4. A client with a history of chronic back pain is prescribed oxycodone for pain management. What is the most important instruction the nurse should provide?

• A. Take the medication with food to reduce stomach upset
• B. Avoid operating heavy machinery while taking this medication
• C. Increase physical activity to enhance pain relief
• D. Report any signs of respiratory depression immediately

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Report any signs of respiratory depression immediately.' Respiratory depression is a severe side effect of opioids like oxycodone and can be life-threatening. It is crucial for the nurse to instruct the client to report any signs such as slow or shallow breathing, difficulty breathing, or confusion. Choice A is incorrect as taking oxycodone with or without food does not significantly affect its efficacy. Choice B is incorrect because avoiding driving is important due to the potential impairment caused by oxycodone, but reporting respiratory depression is more critical. Choice C is incorrect as increasing physical activity may not always be suitable for individuals with chronic back pain and is not directly related to preventing respiratory depression.

5. The nurse observes that a post-operative client's surgical wound has reddened edges and is oozing. What is the appropriate nursing action?

• A. Apply an antibiotic ointment
• B. Clean the wound with sterile saline
• C. Cover the wound with a sterile dressing
• D. Notify the surgeon immediately

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action when a post-operative client's surgical wound has reddened edges and is oozing is to notify the surgeon immediately. Reddened, oozing wound edges can indicate an infection that requires prompt evaluation and intervention by the surgical team. Applying an antibiotic ointment (Choice A) without proper assessment and guidance can be inappropriate. Cleaning the wound with sterile saline (Choice B) and covering it with a sterile dressing (Choice C) may not address the potential infection adequately, and the client may require more specialized care that the surgeon can provide.

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