a client with bipolar disorder is experiencing a manic episode what is the most appropriate intervention to implement first
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Adult Health 2 Final Exam

1. During a manic episode, what is the most appropriate intervention to implement first for a client with bipolar disorder?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a manic episode, individuals with bipolar disorder may experience sensory overload and agitation. Providing a structured environment with minimal stimulation is the most appropriate initial intervention as it can help reduce overwhelming sensory input and promote a sense of calm. Engaging the client in a quiet activity (Choice A) may not be effective if the environment is still overstimulating. Continuous monitoring (Choice C) is important but may not be the first intervention needed. Adjusting lighting and noise levels (Choice D) can be helpful but may not address the core issue of sensory overload and agitation during a manic episode.

2. A client with a history of chronic heart failure is admitted with symptoms of dyspnea and fatigue. What initial intervention should the nurse prepare to implement?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct initial intervention for a client with chronic heart failure presenting with dyspnea and fatigue is oxygen therapy. Oxygen therapy can help relieve dyspnea and improve oxygen saturation levels, which are crucial in managing heart failure exacerbations. Administering IV diuretics may be necessary later to address fluid overload, but oxygen therapy takes precedence in addressing the immediate respiratory distress. Bed rest and dietary consultation are important aspects of care for heart failure patients, but in this scenario, oxygen therapy is the priority to improve the client's respiratory status.

3. The nurse is assessing a client with a suspected diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which clinical sign is most indicative of DVT?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Redness and warmth over the affected area are classic signs of inflammation, which commonly occur in deep vein thrombosis (DVT) due to the obstruction of blood flow. These symptoms result from the body's inflammatory response to the blood clot. Choices B, C, and D are less indicative of DVT. Decreased peripheral pulses may occur in arterial insufficiency rather than DVT. Cyanosis of the toes indicates decreased oxygenation and is more characteristic of arterial issues. Muscle cramps in the calf are nonspecific and can be caused by various conditions, not solely DVT.

4. The nurse is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection to a 6-month-old infant. Which site is most appropriate for this injection?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The vastus lateralis muscle is the preferred site for intramuscular injections in infants due to its size and safety. The deltoid muscle is typically used for adults and older children. The ventrogluteal muscle is more commonly used in toddlers and older children. The dorsogluteal muscle is not recommended for intramuscular injections in any age group due to its proximity to major nerves and blood vessels, which poses a risk of injury or sciatic nerve damage.

5. When counting a client's radial pulse, the nurse notes the pulse is weak and irregular. To record the most accurate heart rate, what should the nurse do?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to count the apical pulse rate for sixty seconds. The apical pulse is more accurate, especially when peripheral pulses are weak or irregular. Counting the apical pulse for a full minute provides a more precise heart rate measurement. Option A is incorrect because waiting for thirty minutes is unnecessary and could delay potential interventions. Option B is incorrect because doubling the radial pulse rate may not provide an accurate representation of the heart rate. Option D is incorrect because comparing radial pulses bilaterally does not give the most accurate heart rate measurement; the apical pulse is preferred in this situation.

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