Nursing Elites

1. The client with hypertension is being taught about lifestyle changes. Which recommendation is most important to include?

• A. Increase sodium intake
• B. Engage in regular physical activity
• C. Consume a diet high in saturated fats
• D. Limit fluid intake

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Engaging in regular physical activity is crucial for managing hypertension as it helps lower blood pressure. Regular exercise can improve heart health, increase circulation, and contribute to overall well-being, all of which are beneficial for individuals with hypertension. Choice A, increasing sodium intake, is incorrect as reducing sodium is recommended for hypertension to help lower blood pressure. Choice C, consuming a diet high in saturated fats, is incorrect as a diet high in saturated fats can negatively impact blood pressure and cardiovascular health. Choice D, limiting fluid intake, is incorrect as maintaining adequate hydration is important for overall health and not directly related to hypertension management.

2. What is the priority nursing action during the immediate postoperative period for a client who just underwent a coronary artery bypass graft?

• A. Monitor for signs of infection
• B. Ensure the client is pain-free
• C. Assess for bleeding and arrhythmias
• D. Maintain a patent airway

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Maintaining a patent airway is the priority nursing action during the immediate postoperative period for a client who just underwent a coronary artery bypass graft. This is crucial to ensure adequate oxygenation, especially in the early recovery phase. Monitoring for signs of infection, ensuring the client is pain-free, and assessing for bleeding and arrhythmias are important aspects of postoperative care but maintaining a clear airway takes precedence in this scenario to prevent hypoxia and respiratory compromise. In the immediate postoperative period, maintaining a patent airway is essential to prevent complications such as airway obstruction, hypoxia, and respiratory distress, which are critical in ensuring the client's safety and recovery.

3. The nurse assigns an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) to feed a client who is at risk for aspiration. What action should the nurse take to ensure safety?

• A. Inform the UAP that suction is available at the bedside.
• B. Instruct the UAP to notify the nurse if the client chokes.
• C. Observe the UAP's ability to implement precautions during feeding.
• D. Ask the UAP about previous experience in performing this skill.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Observing the UAP's ability to implement precautions during feeding is crucial to ensuring the client's safety, especially when there is a risk of aspiration. This hands-on observation allows the nurse to assess whether the UAP is competent in handling the feeding procedure safely. Informing the UAP about suction availability (Choice A) is important but does not directly assess the UAP's ability during feeding. Instructing the UAP to notify the nurse if the client chokes (Choice B) focuses on reactive measures rather than proactive supervision. Asking about previous experience (Choice D) does not provide real-time information on the UAP's current competency in handling the specific feeding task for the at-risk client.

4. A new father asks the nurse the reason for placing an ophthalmic ointment in his newborn's eyes. What information should the nurse provide?

• A. Possible exposure to an environmental staphylococcus infection can infect the newborn's eyes and cause visual deficits
• B. The newborn is at risk for blindness from a corneal syphilitic infection acquired from a mother's infected vagina
• C. Treatment prevents tear duct obstruction with harmful exudate from a vaginal birth that can lead to dry eyes in the newborn
• D. State law mandates all newborns receive prophylactic treatment to prevent gonorrheal or chlamydial ophthalmic infection

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because informing about state law emphasizes the legal requirement and public health rationale behind prophylactic eye treatment to prevent serious infections like gonorrheal or chlamydial ophthalmic infection. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A focuses on staphylococcus infection, which is not the primary concern addressed by the prophylactic ointment. Choice B mentions a specific infection acquired from the mother's infected vagina, which is not the main reason for the ophthalmic ointment. Choice C discusses tear duct obstruction and dry eyes, which are not the primary concerns addressed by the prophylactic ointment.

5. During the assessment of a client who has suffered a stroke, what finding would indicate a complication?

• A. Difficulty swallowing
• B. A slight headache
• C. High blood pressure
• D. Muscle weakness on one side

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Difficulty swallowing (dysphagia) can indicate complications such as aspiration risk, which is common after a stroke due to impaired swallowing reflexes. It poses a serious threat to the client's respiratory system. Options B, C, and D are less likely to indicate immediate complications post-stroke. A slight headache is a common complaint and may not necessarily indicate a complication. High blood pressure is a known risk factor for strokes but may not be an immediate post-stroke complication unless it is severely elevated. Muscle weakness on one side is a common sign of stroke but may not directly indicate a new complication.

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