Nursing Elites

1. All of the following are posture and body alignment problems EXCEPT:

• A. Kyphosis
• B. Scoliosis
• C. Thrombosis
• D. Lumbar lordosis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Thrombosis is a condition involving blood clots and is not related to posture or body alignment, unlike kyphosis, scoliosis, and lumbar lordosis, which are spinal alignment issues. Kyphosis refers to excessive outward curvature of the spine, scoliosis is characterized by a sideways curvature of the spine, and lumbar lordosis involves an exaggerated inward curve in the lower back. Thrombosis, on the other hand, is a condition where blood clots form in the blood vessels, not a posture or body alignment problem.

2. Which of the following is NOT a second-line agent used for the treatment of Tuberculosis?

• A. Amikacin
• B. Moxifloxacin
• C. Rifabutin
• D. Cycloserine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Rifabutin. Rifabutin is actually a first-line drug used in the treatment of tuberculosis. Choices A, B, and D (Amikacin, Moxifloxacin, and Cycloserine) are considered second-line agents for tuberculosis treatment. These drugs are used when the first-line medications are either ineffective or cannot be tolerated by the patient.

3. What is the primary function of surfactant in the lungs?

• A. Reduce surface tension
• B. Enhance oxygen absorption
• C. Facilitate carbon dioxide release
• D. Increase lung volume

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The primary function of surfactant in the lungs is to reduce surface tension in the alveoli. This reduction in surface tension prevents lung collapse and allows for easier breathing. It is particularly crucial in premature infants to help with lung expansion. Choice B is incorrect because surfactant primarily affects surface tension, not oxygen absorption. Choice C is incorrect because surfactant's main role is not in facilitating carbon dioxide release. Choice D is incorrect because surfactant does not directly increase lung volume; its main role is in reducing surface tension.

4. While turning and positioning a bedfast client, the PN observes that the client is dyspneic. Which action should the PN take first?

• A. Apply a pulse oximeter
• B. Measure blood pressure
• C. Notify the charge nurse
• D. Observe pressure areas

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Notifying the charge nurse promptly is the priority when a bedfast client is dyspneic. Dyspnea can indicate a serious problem that requires immediate assessment and intervention. Contacting the charge nurse ensures timely assistance and appropriate actions to address the client's condition. Applying a pulse oximeter or measuring blood pressure may provide valuable data, but the priority is prompt communication with the charge nurse to ensure quick intervention. Observing pressure areas, while important for overall client care, is not the most immediate action needed when a client is experiencing dyspnea.

5. Which electrolyte imbalance is most commonly associated with seizures?

• A. Hyponatremia
• B. Hypercalcemia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyponatremia. Hyponatremia, characterized by low sodium levels in the blood, can lead to cerebral edema and seizures due to water shifting into brain cells. Hypercalcemia (choice B) does not commonly cause seizures but can result in muscle weakness and cardiac arrhythmias. Hyperkalemia (choice C) may lead to muscle weakness and cardiac arrhythmias, but it is less frequently associated with seizures. Hypokalemia (choice D) is linked to muscle weakness and cardiac arrhythmias but is not typically related to seizures.

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