Nursing Elites

1. All of the following are posture and body alignment problems EXCEPT:

• A. Kyphosis
• B. Scoliosis
• C. Thrombosis
• D. Lumbar lordosis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Thrombosis is a condition involving blood clots and is not related to posture or body alignment, unlike kyphosis, scoliosis, and lumbar lordosis, which are spinal alignment issues. Kyphosis refers to excessive outward curvature of the spine, scoliosis is characterized by a sideways curvature of the spine, and lumbar lordosis involves an exaggerated inward curve in the lower back. Thrombosis, on the other hand, is a condition where blood clots form in the blood vessels, not a posture or body alignment problem.

2. There has been a serious explosion at a local factory, and many of the injured are arriving at the hospital. Which of the following patients should a nurse attend to first?

• A. A 30-year-old male who is able to walk into the hospital on his own but has numerous lacerations on the chest and face
• B. A 45-year-old male who was brought in on a stretcher, has been assessed as having respiration and circulation within normal limits, and can follow simple commands
• C. A 50-year-old woman who can walk but has a broken arm and numerous lacerations
• D. A 19-year-old man who has numerous lacerations all over the body and whose respiration exceeds 30 breaths per minute

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. The 19-year-old man with a respiration rate exceeding 30 breaths per minute is showing signs of respiratory distress, indicating a potentially life-threatening condition that requires immediate attention. Patients with respiratory distress should be prioritized as it is a critical condition. Choices A, B, and C describe patients with injuries that are less immediately life-threatening or who are more stable based on the provided information, so they can be attended to after the patient with respiratory distress. Therefore, the nurse should attend to the 19-year-old man first to address his respiratory distress and ensure his condition does not deteriorate further.

3. A client is post-operative day one following a colostomy surgery. The nurse notices the stoma is dark purple. What is the most appropriate action?

• A. Document the finding and continue to monitor.
• B. Apply warm compresses to the stoma.
• C. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
• D. Encourage the client to ambulate.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A dark purple stoma may indicate compromised blood flow to the stoma, which is an emergency. Immediate notification of the healthcare provider is necessary to prevent further complications. Simply documenting and monitoring the finding (Choice A) could lead to delays in addressing a potentially serious issue. Applying warm compresses to the stoma (Choice B) may not address the underlying cause of the dark purple color. Encouraging the client to ambulate (Choice D) is not the priority when a compromised blood flow to the stoma is suspected.

4. A client is recovering from a below-the-knee amputation (BKA). The client reports phantom limb pain. What should the nurse include in the client’s care plan to manage this type of pain?

• A. Apply heat to the residual limb.
• B. Administer prescribed analgesics.
• C. Elevate the residual limb.
• D. Perform range-of-motion exercises.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Phantom limb pain is a type of pain that feels like it's coming from a body part that's no longer there. It is essential to understand that phantom limb pain is real and should be managed appropriately. Administering prescribed analgesics is the most effective way to address this discomfort. Applying heat, elevating the residual limb, and performing range-of-motion exercises are not effective in managing phantom limb pain since the pain originates from the brain expecting sensory input from the missing limb, rather than being related to physical factors that heat, elevation, or exercises can address.

5. In a group therapy setting, one member is very demanding, repeatedly interrupting others and taking most of the group time. The nurse's best response would be:

• A. Will you briefly summarize your point because others need time as well?
• B. Your behavior is obnoxious and drains the group.
• C. I am so frustrated with your behavior.
• D. To ignore the behavior and allow him to vent

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a group therapy setting, where each member should have the opportunity to participate, it is essential for the nurse to manage disruptive behavior assertively yet respectfully. Choice A is the best response as it addresses the issue of one member dominating the group time by asking them to summarize their point briefly, allowing others to contribute. Choice B is confrontational and may alienate the individual, hindering the therapeutic process. Choice C expresses personal frustration, which is not constructive in managing the situation. Choice D of ignoring the behavior is not effective as it allows the disruptive behavior to continue, impacting the group dynamics negatively.

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