Nursing Elites

1. Prior to giving digoxin, the PN assesses that a 2-month-old infant's heart rate is 120 beats/minute. Based on this finding, what action should the PN take?

• A. Withhold the medication and notify the charge nurse
• B. Give the medication and document the heart rate
• C. Withhold the medication until the next scheduled dose
• D. Request the charge nurse to administer the medication

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A heart rate of 120 beats per minute is within the normal range for a 2-month-old infant. Therefore, it is safe to administer the digoxin and document the heart rate as part of routine care. Choice A is incorrect as withholding the medication is not necessary since the heart rate is normal. Choice C is incorrect as there is no need to delay the administration until the next scheduled dose when the heart rate is within the normal range. Choice D is incorrect as the primary nurse is not needed to administer the medication since the heart rate is normal and falls within the safe range for administration.

2. A client has a prescription for a transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulator (TENS) unit for pain management during the postoperative period following a lumbar laminectomy. Which information should the PN reinforce about the action of the adjuvant pain modality?

• A. The discharge of electricity will distract the client's focus from the pain.
• B. An infusion of medication into the spinal canal will block pain perception.
• C. Pain perception in the cerebral cortex is dulled by the unit's discharge of an electrical stimulus.
• D. A mild electrical stimulus on the skin surface closes the gates of nerve conduction for severe pain.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The TENS unit works by providing a mild electrical stimulus to the skin, which helps to 'close the gate' on pain signals, reducing the perception of pain. Choice A is incorrect because distraction is not the primary mechanism of action for TENS. Choice B is incorrect as it describes a different method of pain management involving medication infusion into the spinal canal. Choice C is incorrect as it inaccurately describes the location of pain perception modulation by the TENS unit.

3. A female client who has been taking oral contraceptives for the past year comes to the clinic for an annual exam. Which finding is most important for the PN to report to the HCP?

• A. Breast tenderness
• B. Change in menstrual flow
• C. Left calf pain
• D. Weight gain of 5 pounds

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Left calf pain could indicate deep vein thrombosis (DVT), a serious side effect of oral contraceptives. Reporting this finding to the healthcare provider is critical for further evaluation and treatment. Breast tenderness and change in menstrual flow are common side effects of oral contraceptives and may not be as urgent as left calf pain. Weight gain of 5 pounds, while noteworthy, is not as concerning as a possible indication of DVT.

4. When teaching a patient with diabetes about foot care, which of the following should the nurse emphasize?

• A. Avoid soaking feet daily to prevent dryness and skin breakdown
• B. Select well-fitting shoes to prevent injury
• C. Trim toenails straight across and file the edges
• D. Avoid using heating pads to prevent burns

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Trimming toenails straight across and filing the edges is crucial in diabetic foot care to prevent ingrown toenails and foot injuries. Soaking feet daily can lead to dryness and skin breakdown, increasing the risk of infection. Selecting well-fitting shoes is important to prevent pressure points and skin damage, not tight-fitting shoes. Using heating pads can result in burns or injuries due to decreased sensation in diabetic feet, so it's essential to avoid them.

5. A client who is post-operative from a spinal fusion surgery reports a sudden onset of severe headache when sitting up. What is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Administer pain medication.
• B. Lay the client flat and notify the healthcare provider.
• C. Encourage the client to drink more fluids.
• D. Assess the client’s surgical site for drainage.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct action is to lay the client flat and notify the healthcare provider. A severe headache in a post-operative spinal fusion patient can indicate a spinal fluid leak, which is a medical emergency. By laying the client flat, the nurse helps reduce symptoms by decreasing pressure differentials. Administering pain medication without further assessment or intervention is inappropriate before identifying the cause of the headache. Encouraging the client to drink more fluids is not the priority when a serious complication like a spinal fluid leak is suspected. While assessing the surgical site is important, it is not the priority when a potentially life-threatening complication is suspected.

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