HESI LPN
HESI PN Exit Exam 2023
1. A post-operative client is recovering from a total knee replacement and is prescribed patient-controlled analgesia (PCA). What is the primary advantage of PCA for managing post-operative pain?
- A. It allows for consistent pain control without overmedication.
- B. It eliminates the need for oral pain medication.
- C. It reduces the risk of opioid addiction.
- D. It requires less monitoring by nursing staff.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The primary advantage of PCA for managing post-operative pain is that it allows the client to control the administration of pain medication, leading to consistent pain control without overmedication. Choice B is incorrect as PCA does not eliminate the need for oral pain medication; it supplements it. Choice C is incorrect because while PCA can help reduce opioid consumption, it does not directly reduce the risk of opioid addiction. Choice D is incorrect as PCA actually requires close monitoring by nursing staff to ensure proper use and prevent complications.
2. What is the priority intervention for a patient experiencing an acute asthma attack?
- A. Administering a bronchodilator
- B. Encouraging the patient to drink fluids
- C. Applying a high-flow oxygen mask
- D. Performing chest physiotherapy
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering a bronchodilator is the priority intervention in an acute asthma attack. Bronchodilators help to quickly open the airways, relieve bronchospasm, and improve breathing. Encouraging the patient to drink fluids may be beneficial for other conditions but is not the priority in an acute asthma attack. Applying a high-flow oxygen mask may be necessary in severe cases of respiratory distress but is not the initial priority when managing an acute asthma attack. Performing chest physiotherapy is not indicated as the primary intervention for an acute asthma attack and may not address the immediate need to open the airways and improve breathing.
3. A male client with TB returns to the clinic for daily antibiotic injections for a urinary infection. The client has been taking anti-tubercular medications for 10 weeks and states he has ringing in his ears. Which prescribed medication should the PN report to the HCP?
- A. Pyridoxine with a B complex multivitamin
- B. Gentamicin 160 mg IM daily
- C. Rifampin 600 mg PO daily
- D. Isoniazid 300 mg PO daily
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Gentamicin 160 mg IM daily. Gentamicin is an aminoglycoside antibiotic that can cause ototoxicity, leading to ringing in the ears (tinnitus). This symptom should be reported to the HCP immediately, as it may indicate a need to adjust or discontinue the medication. Choice A, Pyridoxine with a B complex multivitamin, is not the cause of ototoxicity. Choices C and D, Rifampin and Isoniazid, are anti-tubercular medications but are not associated with causing ringing in the ears.
4. Prior to giving digoxin, the PN assesses that a 2-month-old infant's heart rate is 120 beats/minute. Based on this finding, what action should the PN take?
- A. Withhold the medication and notify the charge nurse
- B. Give the medication and document the heart rate
- C. Withhold the medication until the next scheduled dose
- D. Request the charge nurse to administer the medication
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A heart rate of 120 beats per minute is within the normal range for a 2-month-old infant. Therefore, it is safe to administer the digoxin and document the heart rate as part of routine care. Choice A is incorrect as withholding the medication is not necessary since the heart rate is normal. Choice C is incorrect as there is no need to delay the administration until the next scheduled dose when the heart rate is within the normal range. Choice D is incorrect as the primary nurse is not needed to administer the medication since the heart rate is normal and falls within the safe range for administration.
5. The PN is caring for a client with schizophrenia who continues to repeat the last words heard. Which nursing problem should the PN document in the medical record?
- A. Altered thought processes
- B. Impaired social interaction
- C. Risk for self-directed violence
- D. Disturbed thought processes
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Disturbed thought processes. Echolalia, the repetition of heard words, is associated with disturbed thought processes, which are commonly seen in schizophrenia. Altered thought processes (Choice A) is a generic term and does not specifically address the behavior of repeating words. Impaired social interaction (Choice B) is not the primary concern when a client repeats the last words heard. Risk for self-directed violence (Choice C) is not directly related to the behavior of repeating words but focuses on the potential harm the client may cause to themselves.
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