HESI LPN
HESI PN Exit Exam 2023
1. A post-operative client is recovering from a total knee replacement and is prescribed patient-controlled analgesia (PCA). What is the primary advantage of PCA for managing post-operative pain?
- A. It allows for consistent pain control without overmedication.
- B. It eliminates the need for oral pain medication.
- C. It reduces the risk of opioid addiction.
- D. It requires less monitoring by nursing staff.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The primary advantage of PCA for managing post-operative pain is that it allows the client to control the administration of pain medication, leading to consistent pain control without overmedication. Choice B is incorrect as PCA does not eliminate the need for oral pain medication; it supplements it. Choice C is incorrect because while PCA can help reduce opioid consumption, it does not directly reduce the risk of opioid addiction. Choice D is incorrect as PCA actually requires close monitoring by nursing staff to ensure proper use and prevent complications.
2. According to the principle of asepsis, which situation should the PN consider to be sterile?
- A. A one-inch border around the edges of a sterile field set up in the operating room
- B. A sterile glove that the PN thinks might have touched hair
- C. A wrapped, unopened sterile 4x4 gauze pad placed on a damp table top
- D. An open sterile Foley catheter kit set up on a table at the PN's waist level
Correct answer: A
Rationale: According to the principle of asepsis, the one-inch border around the edges of a sterile field set up in the operating room is considered non-sterile, while the central area remains sterile. Therefore, the PN should consider the situation described in choice A to be sterile. Choice B is incorrect because a glove that may have touched hair is contaminated. Choice C is incorrect as a sterile item placed on a damp surface is considered contaminated. Choice D is incorrect as a sterile kit set up at the PN's waist level is prone to contamination.
3. A full-term, 24-hour-old infant in the nursery regurgitates and suddenly turns cyanotic. Which immediate intervention should the PN implement?
- A. Stimulate the infant to cry
- B. Give oxygen by positive pressure
- C. Suction the oral and nasal passages
- D. Turn the infant onto the right side
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Suctioning the oral and nasal passages is the correct immediate intervention in this scenario. Regurgitation leading to cyanosis indicates a potential airway obstruction, which requires prompt action to clear. Stimulating the infant to cry (Choice A) may not address the underlying issue of airway obstruction. Giving oxygen by positive pressure (Choice B) can be beneficial, but clearing the airway obstruction takes precedence. Turning the infant onto the right side (Choice D) does not directly address the need to clear the airway.
4. At 1200, the practical nurse learns that a client's 0900 dose of an anticonvulsant was not given. The next scheduled dose is at 2100. Which action should the PN take?
- A. Administer half of the missed dose immediately
- B. Administer the missed dose as soon as possible
- C. Give the missed dose with the next scheduled dose
- D. Withhold the missed dose unless seizure activity occurs
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Administering the missed dose as soon as possible is crucial in this situation. Missing an anticonvulsant dose can lead to breakthrough seizures, which are harmful to the client. Administering the missed dose promptly helps maintain the therapeutic level of the medication and reduces the risk of seizure activity. Giving half the dose may not provide adequate protection against seizures. Delaying the dose until the next scheduled time increases the time the client is without the medication, potentially increasing the risk of seizures. Withholding the missed dose unless seizure activity occurs is not recommended, as prevention is key in managing anticonvulsant therapy.
5. Which of the following is the most effective way to prevent the spread of infection in a healthcare setting?
- A. Using sterile gloves
- B. Wearing a face mask
- C. Performing hand hygiene
- D. Using disposable equipment
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Performing hand hygiene is the most effective way to prevent the spread of infection in a healthcare setting. Hand hygiene helps remove pathogens that could be transmitted through direct contact, making it a crucial practice in infection control. While using sterile gloves and disposable equipment are important in certain situations, they do not address the potential transmission of pathogens through direct contact, unlike hand hygiene. Wearing a face mask is important for respiratory precautions but may not be as effective as hand hygiene in preventing the spread of infections through direct contact.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access