Nursing Elites

1. What is the best thing to say to a patient scheduled for cataract surgery who is concerned that the physician works on the correct eye?

• A. You are wearing an ID bracelet that will let the medical team know which eye to work on.
• B. When you are taken to the surgery area, the medical staff will confirm which eye needs the surgery.
• C. The surgeon will mark the correct eye before the cataract surgery based on your medical records.
• D. You will wear an ID bracelet, and the nurse will verify the eye scheduled for surgery by comparing it with your records and marking it with a permanent marker.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best response reassures the patient by explaining the process of verifying and marking the correct eye, a safety measure to prevent wrong-site surgery, directly addressing the patient’s concern. Choice A is close but implies the ID bracelet alone determines the correct eye, missing the verification process. Choice B talks about confirmation but lacks details about marking the correct eye. Choice C mentions the surgeon's record but does not specify the direct verification and marking process, unlike Choice D.

2. At 1200, the practical nurse learns that a client's 0900 dose of an anticonvulsant was not given. The next scheduled dose is at 2100. Which action should the PN take?

• A. Administer half of the missed dose immediately
• B. Administer the missed dose as soon as possible
• C. Give the missed dose with the next scheduled dose
• D. Withhold the missed dose unless seizure activity occurs

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering the missed dose as soon as possible is crucial in this situation. Missing an anticonvulsant dose can lead to breakthrough seizures, which are harmful to the client. Administering the missed dose promptly helps maintain the therapeutic level of the medication and reduces the risk of seizure activity. Giving half the dose may not provide adequate protection against seizures. Delaying the dose until the next scheduled time increases the time the client is without the medication, potentially increasing the risk of seizures. Withholding the missed dose unless seizure activity occurs is not recommended, as prevention is key in managing anticonvulsant therapy.

3. The nurse and UAP enter a client's room and find the client lying on the bed. The nurse determines that the client is unresponsive. Which instruction should the nurse give the UAP first?

• A. Obtain emergency help
• B. Feel for a carotid pulse
• C. Bring a glucometer to the room
• D. Check the blood pressure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the UAP to obtain emergency help first. In a situation where a client is unresponsive, the priority is to ensure that help is summoned promptly. This allows for the availability of necessary resources and assistance for resuscitation or other emergency interventions. Feeling for a carotid pulse or checking the blood pressure can be important assessments but are secondary to obtaining immediate help. Bringing a glucometer to the room, while relevant in certain situations, is not the priority when the client's unresponsiveness indicates a need for urgent intervention.

4. While assessing an older male client who takes psychotropic medications, the nurse observes uncontrollable hand movements and excessive blinking. Which information in the client's medical record should the nurse review?

• A. Prescription for lorazepam
• B. History of Parkinson's disease
• C. Screening for tardive dyskinesia
• D. Recent urine drug screen report

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The symptoms of uncontrollable hand movements and excessive blinking are indicative of tardive dyskinesia, a possible side effect of long-term use of psychotropic medications. Reviewing the screening for tardive dyskinesia is crucial to assess if these symptoms are related to the medication. Option A, the prescription for lorazepam, is less relevant as the focus should be on potential side effects rather than the specific medication. Option B, history of Parkinson's disease, is not directly related to the observed symptoms, which are more likely linked to medication side effects. Option D, recent urine drug screen report, is not as pertinent in this context compared to reviewing the screening for tardive dyskinesia.

5. A client post-thoracotomy is complaining of severe pain with deep breathing and coughing. What should the nurse encourage the client to do to manage the pain and prevent respiratory complications?

• A. Hold a pillow against the chest while coughing (splinting).
• B. Take shallow breaths to avoid pain.
• C. Increase the dose of pain medication.
• D. Avoid deep breathing exercises.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Splinting the chest with a pillow helps manage pain during deep breathing and coughing, which is essential to prevent respiratory complications such as atelectasis or pneumonia after thoracic surgery. Holding a pillow against the chest while coughing (splinting) supports the incision site and reduces the pain associated with deep breathing and coughing. Encouraging shallow breaths (Choice B) can lead to respiratory complications due to inadequate lung expansion. Increasing pain medication (Choice C) should be done based on healthcare provider orders and not solely for this situation. Avoiding deep breathing exercises (Choice D) can worsen respiratory function and increase the risk of complications.

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