Nursing Elites

1. What assessment data should lead the nurse to suspect that a client has progressed from HIV infection to AIDS?

• A. Enlarged and tender cervical lymph nodes
• B. Presence of low-grade fever and sore throat
• C. Recent history of recurrent pneumonia
• D. CD4 blood cell count of 300

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Recent history of recurrent pneumonia.' Recurrent pneumonia is a hallmark indicator of progression to AIDS in clients with HIV infection. It signifies advanced immunosuppression when the body is unable to fight off infections effectively. Enlarged and tender cervical lymph nodes (Choice A) are more indicative of local infections or inflammation rather than AIDS progression. The presence of a low-grade fever and sore throat (Choice B) may be common in various infections and are not specific to AIDS progression. While a CD4 blood cell count of 300 (Choice D) is below the normal range and indicates immunosuppression, it alone may not be sufficient to suspect progression to AIDS without other supporting indicators like opportunistic infections such as recurrent pneumonia.

2. A mother brings her child, who has a history of asthma, to the emergency room. The child is wheezing and speaking one word between each breath. The child is anxious, tachycardic, and has labored respirations. Which assessment is most important for the nurse to obtain?

• A. Type of inhaler the child typically uses on a regular basis
• B. Frequency of rescue inhaler use during the week
• C. Last dose and type of rescue inhaler used by the child
• D. Type of allergen exposure or trigger for the current episode

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because knowing the last dose and type of rescue inhaler used helps assess if the child has received adequate treatment and if further intervention is needed. This information is crucial in managing an acute asthma exacerbation. Choice A, the type of inhaler the child typically uses, is less critical during an emergency. Choice B, the frequency of rescue inhaler use during the week, is important for general asthma management but does not provide immediate guidance in the acute situation. Choice D, the type of allergen exposure or trigger, is more relevant for preventive strategies and does not directly impact the immediate treatment of the child's acute asthma attack.

3. A client who had a cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is paralyzed on the left side of the body and has developed a Stage II pressure ulcer on the left hip. Which nursing diagnosis describes this client’s current health status?

• A. Risk for impaired tissue integrity related to impaired physical mobility
• B. Impaired skin integrity related to altered circulation and pressure
• C. Ineffective tissue perfusion related to inability to move self in bed
• D. Impaired physical mobility related to the left-side paralysis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Impaired skin integrity related to altered circulation and pressure.' This nursing diagnosis is the most appropriate as it directly addresses the Stage II pressure ulcer on the left hip, which is caused by altered circulation and pressure due to the client's left-side paralysis. Choice A is incorrect because it focuses on the risk for impaired tissue integrity rather than the current issue of impaired skin integrity. Choice C is incorrect as ineffective tissue perfusion is not the primary issue in this scenario. Choice D is incorrect as it only addresses the left-side paralysis and not the pressure ulcer or altered circulation.

4. The school nurse is screening students for spinal abnormalities and instructs each student to stand up and then touch their toes. Which finding indicates that a student should be referred for scoliosis evaluation?

• A. Inability to touch their toes
• B. Asymmetry of the shoulders when standing upright
• C. Audible crepitus when bending
• D. An exaggerated upper thoracic convex curvature

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Asymmetry of the shoulders when standing upright is a common indicator of scoliosis. This finding suggests a possible spinal abnormality and should prompt further evaluation. Choices A, C, and D are not specific indicators of scoliosis. Inability to touch their toes may indicate flexibility issues or tightness in the hamstrings. Audible crepitus when bending may suggest joint degeneration or inflammation. An exaggerated upper thoracic convex curvature could indicate poor posture or other spinal abnormalities but is not directly indicative of scoliosis.

5. The nurse is demonstrating wound care to a client following abdominal surgery. In what order should the nurse teach the technique?

• A. Remove old dressing using clean gloves. Discard gloves with old dressing
• B. Moisten sterile gauze with normal saline. Clean wound from least contaminated area to most contaminated area
• C. Apply sterile gauze dressing to wound area
• D. Secure dressing with tape

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct order ensures proper aseptic technique and wound care to prevent infection. The first step is to remove the old dressing using clean gloves to prevent contamination. Discarding the gloves with the old dressing helps maintain cleanliness. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because cleaning the wound, applying a new dressing, and securing it should come after removing the old dressing to maintain asepsis and prevent infection.

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