a client is receiving lidocaine iv at 3 mgminute the pharmacy dispenses a 500 ml iv solution of normal saline ns with 2 grams of lidocaine the nurse s
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI CAT Exam 2022

1. A client is receiving lidocaine IV at 3 mg/minute. The pharmacy dispenses a 500 ml IV solution of normal saline (NS) with 2 grams of lidocaine. The nurse should regulate the infusion pump to deliver how many ml/hour?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The infusion rate is calculated based on the concentration of lidocaine and the prescribed rate of infusion. First, convert lidocaine's weight to milligrams (2 grams = 2000 mg). Then, use the formula: (Total volume in ml * dose in mg) / 60 minutes. For this case, (500 ml * 2000 mg) / 60 minutes = 45 ml/hour. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not reflect the accurate calculation based on the provided concentration and infusion rate.

2. After a sudden loss of consciousness, a female client is taken to the ED, and initial assessment indicates that her blood glucose level is critically low. Once her glucose level is stabilized, the client reports that she was recently diagnosed with anorexia nervosa and is being treated at an outpatient clinic. Which intervention is more important to include in this client’s discharge plan?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Continuing outpatient treatment is crucial for managing anorexia nervosa and preventing future complications. Reinforcing the need to continue outpatient treatment ensures ongoing support, monitoring, and therapy for the client's anorexia nervosa. Describing the importance of maintaining stable blood glucose levels (Choice A) is relevant but does not address the underlying eating disorder directly. Encouraging a balanced and nutritious diet (Choice B) is important; however, specific dietary recommendations should be tailored to the individual's condition by healthcare providers. Educating on the risks of untreated anorexia nervosa (Choice D) is informative but does not provide a direct actionable step for the client's immediate discharge plan, unlike the importance of continuing outpatient treatment.

3. A 70-year-old client is admitted to the hospital after 24 hours of acute diarrhea. To determine fluid status, which initial data is most important for the nurse to obtain?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Usual and current weight. Weight changes are the most direct indicator of fluid status in a patient with acute diarrhea. Monitoring weight loss or gain can provide crucial information about fluid balance. Option B, color and amount of urine, though important for assessing renal function, is not as direct an indicator of fluid status as weight. Option C, number and frequency of stools, is relevant for assessing the severity of diarrhea but does not provide direct information on fluid status. Option D, intake and output 24 hours prior to admission, does not reflect the current fluid status and may not be accurate in a rapidly changing condition like acute diarrhea.

4. What explanation is best for the nurse to provide a client who asks the purpose of using the log-rolling technique for turning?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'The technique is intended to maintain straight spinal alignment.' Log-rolling is a technique used to move a person as a single unit to maintain the alignment of the spinal column. This is crucial to prevent spinal cord injury, especially in clients with suspected spine fractures. Choice A is incorrect because log-rolling focuses on spinal alignment, not just decreasing back injury risks. Choice C is incorrect because the number of people involved is not the primary purpose of log-rolling, which is maintaining spinal alignment. Choice D is incorrect because while turning instead of pulling may help prevent skin damage, the primary goal of log-rolling is to protect the spine, not the skin.

5. When a UAP reports to the charge nurse that a client has a weak pulse with a rate of 44 beats per minute, what action should the charge nurse implement?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the charge nurse to implement is to notify the health care provider of the abnormal pulse rate and pulse volume. A weak pulse with bradycardia (pulse rate of 44 beats per minute) requires immediate follow-up to investigate potential underlying issues. In this situation, it is crucial to involve the healthcare provider for further assessment and intervention. Instructing the UAP to count the client's apical pulse rate for sixty seconds (Choice A) may delay necessary actions. Determining capillary refill time (Choice B) is not directly related to addressing a weak pulse, and assigning an LPN to assess an apical radial pulse deficit (Choice C) is not as urgent as involving the healthcare provider.

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