HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam 2022
1. A client is receiving lidocaine IV at 3 mg/minute. The pharmacy dispenses a 500 ml IV solution of normal saline (NS) with 2 grams of lidocaine. The nurse should regulate the infusion pump to deliver how many ml/hour?
- A. 18
- B. 27
- C. 36
- D. 45
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The infusion rate is calculated based on the concentration of lidocaine and the prescribed rate of infusion. First, convert lidocaine's weight to milligrams (2 grams = 2000 mg). Then, use the formula: (Total volume in ml * dose in mg) / 60 minutes. For this case, (500 ml * 2000 mg) / 60 minutes = 45 ml/hour. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not reflect the accurate calculation based on the provided concentration and infusion rate.
2. Which medication should the nurse anticipate administering to a client who is diagnosed with myxedema coma?
- A. Intravenous administration of thyroid hormones
- B. Oral administration of hypnotic agents
- C. Intravenous bolus of hydrocortisone
- D. Subcutaneous administration of vitamin K
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Intravenous administration of thyroid hormones. Myxedema coma is a severe form of hypothyroidism that necessitates immediate replacement of thyroid hormones. Administering thyroid hormones intravenously ensures rapid absorption and effectiveness in managing the condition. Choice B, oral administration of hypnotic agents, is incorrect as it does not address the primary issue of thyroid hormone deficiency in myxedema coma. Choice C, intravenous bolus of hydrocortisone, is not the appropriate treatment for myxedema coma as adrenal insufficiency is not the primary concern in this condition. Choice D, subcutaneous administration of vitamin K, is unrelated to the management of myxedema coma and does not address the underlying thyroid hormone deficiency that characterizes this condition.
3. A male client with cirrhosis has jaundice and pruritus. He tells the nurse that he has been soaking in hot baths at night with no relief of his discomfort. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Explain that the symptoms are caused by liver damage and can be managed
- B. Obtain a PRN prescription for an analgesic that the client can use for symptom relief
- C. Encourage the client to use cooler water and apply oil-based lotion after soaking
- D. Suggest that the client take brief showers and apply oil-based lotion after showering
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Cooler water and oil-based lotion can help relieve pruritus and improve comfort in clients with cirrhosis experiencing jaundice and pruritus. Hot baths can exacerbate itching, so it is important to suggest cooler showers instead. Choice A is incorrect because symptoms like pruritus can be managed. Choice B is not the most appropriate initial intervention for pruritus related to liver disease. Choice C suggests the use of calamine lotion, which may not be as effective as oil-based lotion for relieving pruritus in this case.
4. A male client, admitted to the mental health unit for a somatoform disorder, becomes angry because he cannot have his pain medication. He demands that the nurse call the healthcare provider and threatens to leave the hospital. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Place the client in seclusion per unit guidelines
- B. Administer a PRN prescription for lorazepam (Ativan)
- C. Call security to help ensure staff and client safety
- D. Ask what other methods he uses to deal with pain
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should prioritize ensuring safety. When a client becomes aggressive and threatens to leave, calling security is crucial to help maintain a safe environment for both staff and the client. Placing the client in seclusion (choice A) is not the appropriate initial action as it may escalate the situation further. Administering lorazepam (choice B) should not be the first response to behavioral issues. Asking about other pain management methods (choice D) is not the immediate priority when safety is at risk.
5. After removing an IV that became infiltrated in the client’s left forearm, which site should the nurse select as a possible site to insert another IV catheter?
- A. Right hand
- B. Right forearm
- C. Left hand
- D. Right subclavian
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Right hand. When an IV becomes infiltrated in the client's left forearm, it is essential to avoid the same side due to the risk of complications. Therefore, the right hand is a suitable alternative site for IV insertion. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choosing the right forearm (B) would still be on the same side, which increases the risk of complications. The left hand (C) is not a preferred option immediately after an infiltration in the left forearm. The right subclavian (D) is an invasive site typically reserved for central line placement and not a first-line choice for IV insertion.
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