Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving lidocaine IV at 3 mg/minute. The pharmacy dispenses a 500 ml IV solution of normal saline (NS) with 2 grams of lidocaine. The nurse should regulate the infusion pump to deliver how many ml/hour?

• A. 18
• B. 27
• C. 36
• D. 45

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The infusion rate is calculated based on the concentration of lidocaine and the prescribed rate of infusion. First, convert lidocaine's weight to milligrams (2 grams = 2000 mg). Then, use the formula: (Total volume in ml * dose in mg) / 60 minutes. For this case, (500 ml * 2000 mg) / 60 minutes = 45 ml/hour. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not reflect the accurate calculation based on the provided concentration and infusion rate.

2. The parents of a 6-year-old recently diagnosed with asthma should be taught that the symptom of acute episodes of asthma is due to which physiological response?

• A. Inflammation of the mucous membrane & bronchospasm
• B. Increased mucus production and bronchoconstriction
• C. Allergic reactions and hyperventilation
• D. Airway narrowing and decreased lung capacity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Inflammation of the mucous membrane & bronchospasm. Acute asthma episodes are primarily caused by inflammation of the airways and bronchospasm, which lead to airway obstruction. Increased mucus production and bronchoconstriction (Choice B) are part of the physiological responses in asthma but do not directly cause acute episodes. Allergic reactions and hyperventilation (Choice C) are related to asthma triggers and responses but are not the direct causes of acute episodes. Airway narrowing and decreased lung capacity (Choice D) are consequences of inflammation and bronchospasm but do not explain the physiological response leading to acute asthma episodes.

3. Which client is at the greatest risk for developing delirium?

• A. An adult client who cannot sleep due to constant pain
• B. An older client who attempted suicide 1 month ago
• C. A young adult who takes antipsychotic medications twice a day
• D. A middle-aged woman who uses a tank for supplemental oxygen

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because older adults are at higher risk for delirium, especially following a recent suicide attempt, which can be a significant stressor. Choice A is less likely to develop delirium solely due to difficulty sleeping; delirium is more complex and multifactorial. Choice C, a young adult taking antipsychotic medications, may be at risk for other conditions but not necessarily delirium. Choice D, a middle-aged woman using supplemental oxygen, is not directly linked to an increased risk of delirium compared to the older client who recently attempted suicide.

4. A client has had several episodes of clear, watery diarrhea that started yesterday. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Administer a prescribed PRN antiemetic
• B. Assess the client for the presence of hemorrhoids
• C. Check the client’s hemoglobin level
• D. Review the client’s current list of medications

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement in a client experiencing clear, watery diarrhea is to review the client's current list of medications. Certain medications can cause diarrhea as a side effect, so identifying any potential culprits is essential. Administering an antiemetic (Choice A) is not appropriate for diarrhea, as antiemetics are used to control nausea and vomiting, not diarrhea. Assessing for hemorrhoids (Choice B) is not the priority when the client is experiencing watery diarrhea; addressing the root cause is crucial. Checking the client’s hemoglobin level (Choice C) is not the immediate action needed for this situation as it does not directly address the cause of diarrhea.

5. A client with renal disease seems anxious and presents with the onset of shortness of breath, lethargy, edema, and weight gain. Which action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Determine serum potassium level
• B. Calculate the client’s daily fluid intake
• C. Assess client for signs of vertigo
• D. Review the client’s pulse oximetry reading

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to determine the client's serum potassium level. In a client with renal disease experiencing symptoms like shortness of breath, lethargy, edema, and weight gain, assessing serum potassium levels is crucial. Electrolyte imbalances, including potassium, can lead to serious complications such as cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness. Calculating daily fluid intake may be important but addressing acute symptoms related to electrolyte imbalances takes precedence. Assessing for signs of vertigo and reviewing pulse oximetry reading are not the priority in this scenario compared to assessing and managing potential electrolyte imbalances.

Similar Questions