Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving lidocaine IV at 3 mg/minute. The pharmacy dispenses a 500 ml IV solution of normal saline (NS) with 2 grams of lidocaine. The nurse should regulate the infusion pump to deliver how many ml/hour?

• A. 18
• B. 27
• C. 36
• D. 45

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The infusion rate is calculated based on the concentration of lidocaine and the prescribed rate of infusion. First, convert lidocaine's weight to milligrams (2 grams = 2000 mg). Then, use the formula: (Total volume in ml * dose in mg) / 60 minutes. For this case, (500 ml * 2000 mg) / 60 minutes = 45 ml/hour. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not reflect the accurate calculation based on the provided concentration and infusion rate.

2. A female client has been taking a high dose of prednisone, a corticosteroid, for several months. After stopping the medication abruptly, the client reports feeling very tired. Which nursing intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Measure vital signs
• B. Auscultate breath sounds
• C. Palpate the abdomen
• D. Observe the skin for bruising

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Discontinuing prednisone abruptly can lead to adrenal insufficiency, which may result in symptoms such as fatigue. Monitoring vital signs is crucial in this situation to assess for potential complications like hypotension, which can be a sign of adrenal insufficiency. Auscultating breath sounds (choice B) is important but not the priority when considering the risk of adrenal insufficiency. Palpating the abdomen (choice C) and observing the skin for bruising (choice D) are not directly related to the potential complications of abruptly stopping prednisone.

3. An older male resident of a long-term care facility has been scratching his legs for the past 2 days. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Explain the importance of bathing or showering daily
• B. Encourage fluid intake of at least 2,000 ml daily
• C. Keep the legs covered as much as possible
• D. Apply emollient to the affected area at least twice daily

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention for the nurse to implement in this scenario is to apply emollient to the affected area at least twice daily. This is because applying emollients helps address dry skin, which is a common cause of itching in older adults. Explaining the importance of bathing or showering daily (Choice A) may be helpful for general hygiene but may not specifically address the itching. Encouraging fluid intake (Choice B) and keeping the legs covered (Choice C) are not directly related to addressing the itching caused by dry skin.

4. The practical nurse (PN) is assigned to work with three registered nurses (RN) who are caring for neurologically compromised clients. The client with which change in status is best to assign to the PN?

• A. Diabetic ketoacidosis whose Glasgow Coma Scale score changed from 10 to 7
• B. Subdural hematoma whose blood pressure changed from 150/80 mmHg to 170/60 mmHg
• C. Myxedema coma whose blood pressure changed from 80/50 mmHg to 70/40 mmHg
• D. Viral meningitis whose temperature changed from 101° F (38.3 C) to 102° F (38.9C)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because viral meningitis with a slight increase in temperature is less acute and complex compared to the other conditions. This change in temperature does not indicate a critical or urgent situation requiring immediate attention or intervention beyond the scope of a practical nurse. Choices A, B, and C present more significant changes in health status such as a decrease in Glasgow Coma Scale score, an increase in intracranial pressure indicated by blood pressure changes, and a significant drop in blood pressure, respectively. These changes require closer monitoring and intervention by registered nurses due to the higher acuity and complexity of care needed for these conditions.

5. The nurse is completing a neurological assessment on a client with a closed head injury. The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score was 13 on admission. It is now assessed at 6. What is the priority nursing intervention based on the client’s current GCS?

• A. Notify the healthcare provider of the GCS score
• B. Prepare the family for the client’s imminent death
• C. Monitor the client q1 hour for changes in the GCS score
• D. Begin cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A significant drop in GCS indicates a severe decline in neurological status, necessitating immediate communication with the healthcare provider. Notifying the healthcare provider allows for prompt evaluation and intervention to address the worsening condition. Choice B is incorrect because preparing the family for imminent death is premature and not supported by the information provided. Choice C is incorrect as the frequency of monitoring should be increased to every 15 minutes rather than every hour due to the significant drop in GCS. Choice D is incorrect because initiating CPR is not indicated based solely on a decreased GCS score.

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