HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam 2022
1. A client is receiving lidocaine IV at 3 mg/minute. The pharmacy dispenses a 500 ml IV solution of normal saline (NS) with 2 grams of lidocaine. The nurse should regulate the infusion pump to deliver how many ml/hour?
- A. 18
- B. 27
- C. 36
- D. 45
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The infusion rate is calculated based on the concentration of lidocaine and the prescribed rate of infusion. First, convert lidocaine's weight to milligrams (2 grams = 2000 mg). Then, use the formula: (Total volume in ml * dose in mg) / 60 minutes. For this case, (500 ml * 2000 mg) / 60 minutes = 45 ml/hour. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not reflect the accurate calculation based on the provided concentration and infusion rate.
2. Following morning care, a client with C-5 spinal cord injury who is sitting in a wheelchair becomes flushed and complains of a headache. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Check for any kinks or obstructions in the client’s Foley tubing
- B. Assess the client’s blood pressure every 15 minutes
- C. Administer a prescribed PRN dose of hydralazine (Apresoline)
- D. Educate the client on recognizing symptoms of dysreflexia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a client with a C-5 spinal cord injury experiencing flushing and a headache, the priority intervention is to assess the client's blood pressure every 15 minutes. These symptoms could indicate autonomic dysreflexia, a potentially life-threatening condition. Assessing the blood pressure is crucial to identify and address this emergency situation promptly. Checking for kinks or obstructions in the Foley tubing (Choice A) is important but not the priority in this scenario. Administering hydralazine (Choice C) without knowing the blood pressure could be harmful as it may lead to a sudden drop in blood pressure. Educating the client on recognizing symptoms of dysreflexia (Choice D) is important for long-term management but is not the immediate action needed in this acute situation.
3. At 1130, the nurse assumes care of an adult client with diabetes mellitus who was admitted with an infected foot ulcer. After reviewing the client’s electronic health record, which priority nursing action should the nurse implement?
- A. Administer insulin based on the sliding scale
- B. Assess the appearance of the foot wound
- C. Obtain antibiotic peak and trough levels
- D. Initiate hourly measurements of urine output
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Assessing the appearance of the foot wound is the priority action in this scenario. This assessment is crucial to monitor for any signs of infection progression or complications related to the foot ulcer, especially in a client with diabetes mellitus. Administering insulin based on the sliding scale (Choice A) is important but not the immediate priority compared to assessing the foot wound. Obtaining antibiotic peak and trough levels (Choice C) is relevant but not as immediate as assessing the wound for signs of infection. Initiating hourly measurements of urine output (Choice D) is not the priority when compared to assessing the foot wound in a client with an infected foot ulcer.
4. A 13-year-old girl, diagnosed with diabetes mellitus Type 1 at the age of 9, is admitted to the hospital in diabetic ketoacidosis. Which occurrence is the most likely cause of the ketoacidosis?
- A. Ate an extra peanut butter sandwich before gym class
- B. Incorrectly drew up and administered too much insulin
- C. Was not hungry, so she skipped eating lunch
- D. Has had a cold and ear infection for the past two days
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Incorrect insulin administration is a common cause of diabetic ketoacidosis. Administering too much insulin can lead to uncontrolled hyperglycemia, where the body starts breaking down fat for energy, resulting in the production of ketones. Choices A, C, and D are less likely to directly cause diabetic ketoacidosis. Eating an extra peanut butter sandwich, skipping lunch, or having a cold and ear infection would not directly lead to the metabolic derangements seen in diabetic ketoacidosis.
5. Several clients on a telemetry unit are scheduled for discharge in the morning, but a telemetry-monitored bed is needed immediately. The charge nurse should make arrangements to transfer which client to another medical unit? The client who is
- A. Learning to self-administer insulin injections after being diagnosed with diabetes mellitus
- B. Ambulatory following coronary artery bypass graft surgery performed six days ago.
- C. Wearing a sling immobilizer following permanent pacemaker insertion earlier that day
- D. Experiencing syncopal episodes resulting from dehydration caused by severe diarrhea
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the client who is ambulatory following coronary artery bypass graft surgery performed six days ago is stable enough for transfer compared to the other clients. Choice A should not be transferred as the client is still in the learning phase of self-administering insulin injections after being diagnosed with diabetes mellitus, requiring close monitoring. Choice C should not be transferred immediately after having a permanent pacemaker insertion as they need telemetry monitoring for any complications. Choice D should not be transferred as the client is experiencing syncopal episodes due to dehydration caused by severe diarrhea, requiring immediate intervention and close monitoring on the telemetry unit.
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