HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam 2022
1. A client is receiving lidocaine IV at 3 mg/minute. The pharmacy dispenses a 500 ml IV solution of normal saline (NS) with 2 grams of lidocaine. The nurse should regulate the infusion pump to deliver how many ml/hour?
- A. 18
- B. 27
- C. 36
- D. 45
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The infusion rate is calculated based on the concentration of lidocaine and the prescribed rate of infusion. First, convert lidocaine's weight to milligrams (2 grams = 2000 mg). Then, use the formula: (Total volume in ml * dose in mg) / 60 minutes. For this case, (500 ml * 2000 mg) / 60 minutes = 45 ml/hour. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not reflect the accurate calculation based on the provided concentration and infusion rate.
2. The nurse discontinues a continuous IV heparin infusion for a male client on strict bedrest and is now preparing to administer the client's first dose of enoxaparin. Prior to giving this subcutaneous injection, which assessment finding requires additional intervention by the nurse?
- A. Current lab report indicates an Aptt at 1.5 times the client's control
- B. The client states that his right calf is aching and wants pain medication
- C. The spouse is assisting the client who is shaving with an electric razor
- D. Several bruised areas are noted on the client's upper extremities bilaterally
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Bruised areas on the client's upper extremities bilaterally indicate an increased risk of bleeding, which requires careful assessment before administering enoxaparin. Bruising suggests potential issues with clotting and hemostasis, making it crucial for the nurse to further evaluate the client's bleeding risk. Choices A, B, and C do not directly relate to the assessment of bleeding risk associated with enoxaparin administration and are therefore incorrect. Choice A provides information about the client's Aptt, which is not directly relevant to assessing bleeding risk for enoxaparin. Choice B addresses pain management, and Choice C involves the client's daily activities with no direct link to the bleeding risk assessment.
3. A female client presents to the emergency department in the early evening complaining of abdominal cramping, watery diarrhea, and vomiting. She tells the nurse that she was at a picnic and ate barbecue that afternoon. What question is most important for the triage nurse to ask this client?
- A. Have you recently traveled outside the United States?
- B. How high was your temperature when you returned home?
- C. Have you taken any medication to treat these symptoms?
- D. Is anyone else sick who was also at the picnic?
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The most important question for the triage nurse to ask the client in this scenario is whether anyone else who attended the picnic is also sick. This is crucial to identify a potential outbreak or common source of infection. Asking about recent travel may be important for infectious diseases but is not as relevant as identifying a common source among individuals who shared the same food. Inquiring about the client's temperature is important but does not provide immediate insight into the cause of symptoms. Asking about medication taken is relevant but not as critical as determining if others are affected, which could indicate a foodborne illness.
4. The nurse administers an oral antiviral to a client with shingles. Which finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?
- A. Decreased white blood cell count
- B. Pruritus and muscle aches
- C. Elevated liver function tests
- D. Vomiting and diarrhea
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Elevated liver function tests. When administering antivirals, especially orally, monitoring liver function tests is crucial as it may indicate liver toxicity. This finding should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider to prevent further complications. Choice A, decreased white blood cell count, may be expected with certain antivirals but is not the most critical finding in this scenario. Pruritus and muscle aches (choice B) are common side effects of antivirals and do not require immediate reporting. Vomiting and diarrhea (choice D) are also common side effects that may not be as concerning as elevated liver function tests.
5. The nurse is assessing a client with left-sided heart failure who reports nocturia and dyspnea. The nurse identifies pulsus alternans and crackles in all lung fields. Which action is best to include in the client’s plan of care?
- A. Begin client education about positive inotropic medications.
- B. Place the client in Trendelenburg position.
- C. Prepare the client for an emergency cardiac catheterization.
- D. Monitor serum Troponin, CK, and CK-MB levels.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In the scenario described, the client is exhibiting signs of left-sided heart failure, such as dyspnea, nocturia, pulsus alternans, and crackles in all lung fields. Positive inotropic medications are commonly used in the treatment of heart failure to improve cardiac contractility and output. Therefore, beginning client education about positive inotropic medications is the best action to include in the client's plan of care. Choice B is incorrect because placing the client in Trendelenburg position is not indicated in the management of left-sided heart failure. Choice C is incorrect as emergency cardiac catheterization is not typically the initial intervention for left-sided heart failure. Choice D is incorrect as monitoring serum Troponin, CK, and CK-MB levels is more pertinent to assessing for myocardial infarction rather than managing heart failure.
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