Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving lidocaine IV at 3 mg/minute. The pharmacy dispenses a 500 ml IV solution of normal saline (NS) with 2 grams of lidocaine. The nurse should regulate the infusion pump to deliver how many ml/hour?

• A. 18
• B. 27
• C. 36
• D. 45

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The infusion rate is calculated based on the concentration of lidocaine and the prescribed rate of infusion. First, convert lidocaine's weight to milligrams (2 grams = 2000 mg). Then, use the formula: (Total volume in ml * dose in mg) / 60 minutes. For this case, (500 ml * 2000 mg) / 60 minutes = 45 ml/hour. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not reflect the accurate calculation based on the provided concentration and infusion rate.

2. A woman with an anxiety disorder calls her obstetrician’s office and tells the nurse of increased anxiety since the normal vaginal delivery of her son three weeks ago. Since she is breastfeeding, she stopped taking her antianxiety medications, but thinks she may need to start taking them again because of her increased anxiety. What response is best for the nurse to provide this woman?

• A. Describe the safety of certain antianxiety medications during breastfeeding
• B. Encourage her to consider stress-relieving alternatives, such as deep breathing exercises
• C. Inform her that some antianxiety medications are safe to take while breastfeeding
• D. Explain that anxiety is a common response for the mother of a 3-week-old

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Some antianxiety medications are considered safe for use while breastfeeding, and the nurse should provide this information to alleviate the woman's concerns. Choice A has been corrected to focus on the safety of certain antianxiety medications during breastfeeding, which is more accurate. Choice B suggests stress-relieving alternatives, which may help but do not address the need for antianxiety medication if required. Choice D is incorrect because it minimizes the woman's concerns by dismissing her increased anxiety as a normal response.

3. A client is admitted to the hospital with a serum sodium level of 128 mEq/L, distended neck veins, and lung crackles. What intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Increase the intake of salty foods
• B. Administer NaCl supplements
• C. Restrict oral fluid intake
• D. Hold the client's loop diuretic

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the scenario described, the client presents with signs of fluid overload and hyponatremia. Restricting oral fluid intake is the appropriate intervention to manage fluid overload and correct hyponatremia. Increasing the intake of salty foods (Choice A) and administering NaCl supplements (Choice B) would exacerbate the sodium imbalance. Holding the client's loop diuretic (Choice D) is not directly related to addressing the fluid overload and hyponatremia.

4. A young adult woman visits the clinic and learns that she is positive for BRCA1 gene mutation and asks the nurse what to expect next. How should the nurse respond?

• A. Explain that counseling will be provided to give her information about her cancer risk.
• B. Gather additional information about the client’s family history for all types of cancer.
• C. Offer assurance that there are a variety of effective treatments for breast cancer.
• D. Provide information about survival rates for women who have this genetic mutation.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because counseling will help the woman understand her risk and options for surveillance or preventive measures. At this point, it is crucial to address the woman's immediate concerns related to the BRCA1 gene mutation. Choice B is incorrect as the focus should be on the woman's individual risk due to the specific gene mutation she carries. Choice C is not the priority as treatment options come after assessing the risk and deciding on surveillance or preventive measures. Choice D is incorrect because discussing survival rates is not the immediate need for someone who has just received information about having a genetic mutation.

5. Following morning care, a client with C-5 spinal cord injury who is sitting in a wheelchair becomes flushed and complains of a headache. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Check for any kinks or obstructions in the client’s Foley tubing
• B. Assess the client’s blood pressure every 15 minutes
• C. Administer a prescribed PRN dose of hydralazine (Apresoline)
• D. Educate the client on recognizing symptoms of dysreflexia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with a C-5 spinal cord injury experiencing flushing and a headache, the priority intervention is to assess the client's blood pressure every 15 minutes. These symptoms could indicate autonomic dysreflexia, a potentially life-threatening condition. Assessing the blood pressure is crucial to identify and address this emergency situation promptly. Checking for kinks or obstructions in the Foley tubing (Choice A) is important but not the priority in this scenario. Administering hydralazine (Choice C) without knowing the blood pressure could be harmful as it may lead to a sudden drop in blood pressure. Educating the client on recognizing symptoms of dysreflexia (Choice D) is important for long-term management but is not the immediate action needed in this acute situation.

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