Nursing Elites

1. After receiving report, which client should the nurse assess last?

• A. An older client with dark red drainage on a postoperative dressing, but no drainage in the Hemovac
• B. An adult client with no postoperative drainage in the Jackson-Pratt drain with the bulb compressed
• C. An older client with a distended abdomen and no drainage from the nasogastric tube
• D. An adult client with rectal tube draining clear pale red liquid drainage

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because the client with rectal tube drainage of clear pale red liquid is likely to be the least urgent since this is a normal post-operative finding. Clear pale red liquid drainage from a rectal tube is typically not a cause for immediate concern. Choices A, B, and C present clients with concerning signs that may require more immediate assessment and intervention. A client with dark red drainage on a postoperative dressing may indicate active bleeding, a client with a compressed Jackson-Pratt drain bulb may have inadequate drainage resulting in complications, and a client with a distended abdomen and no drainage from the nasogastric tube may be experiencing gastrointestinal issues that need prompt evaluation.

2. A 9-year-old received a short arm cast for a right radius. To relieve itching under the child’s cast, which instructions should the nurse provide to the parents?

• A. Blow cool air from a hair dryer under the cast
• B. Twist the cast back and forth
• C. Shake powder into the cast
• D. Push a pencil under the cast edge

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Blowing cool air from a hair dryer under the cast is a safe method to relieve itching without damaging the cast or causing injury. The air helps to dry out the moisture that is causing the itching. Twisting the cast back and forth (choice B) can create pressure points and discomfort for the child. Shaking powder into the cast (choice C) can introduce foreign material that may cause skin irritation. Pushing a pencil under the cast edge (choice D) can injure the child's skin or even dislodge the cast.

3. What assessment data should lead the nurse to suspect that a client has progressed from HIV infection to AIDS?

• A. Enlarged and tender cervical lymph nodes
• B. Presence of low-grade fever and sore throat
• C. Recent history of recurrent pneumonia
• D. CD4 blood cell count of 300

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Recent history of recurrent pneumonia.' Recurrent pneumonia is a hallmark indicator of progression to AIDS in clients with HIV infection. It signifies advanced immunosuppression when the body is unable to fight off infections effectively. Enlarged and tender cervical lymph nodes (Choice A) are more indicative of local infections or inflammation rather than AIDS progression. The presence of a low-grade fever and sore throat (Choice B) may be common in various infections and are not specific to AIDS progression. While a CD4 blood cell count of 300 (Choice D) is below the normal range and indicates immunosuppression, it alone may not be sufficient to suspect progression to AIDS without other supporting indicators like opportunistic infections such as recurrent pneumonia.

4. An older male client with a history of type 1 diabetes has not felt well for the past few days and arrives at the clinic with abdominal cramping and vomiting. He is lethargic, moderately confused, and cannot remember when he took his last dose of insulin or ate last. What action should the nurse implement first?

• A. obtain a serum potassium level
• B. administer the client's usual dose of insulin
• C. assess pupillary response to light
• D. Start an intravenous (IV) infusion of normal saline

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering IV fluids is crucial to address potential dehydration and electrolyte imbalances, especially if the client is unable to provide a clear history. Starting an IV infusion of normal saline will help rehydrate the client and address any electrolyte imbalances, which are common in clients with diabetes experiencing symptoms like abdominal cramping and vomiting. Obtaining a serum potassium level can be important but is not the priority when the client is showing signs of dehydration and confusion. Administering insulin should only be done after addressing hydration and electrolyte status. Assessing pupillary response to light is not the most critical action in this situation compared to addressing dehydration and potential electrolyte imbalances.

5. The nurse is calculating the one-minute Apgar score for a newborn male infant and determines that his heart rate is 150 beats/minute, he has a vigorous cry, his muscle tone is good with total flexion, he has quick reflex irritability, and his color is dusky and cyanotic. What Apgar score should the nurse assign to the infant?

• A. 8
• B. 9
• C. 6
• D. 7

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 8. The Apgar score is calculated based on five parameters: heart rate, respiratory effort, muscle tone, reflex irritability, and color. In this case, the infant has a good heart rate, vigorous cry, good muscle tone, and quick reflex irritability, which would total to 8. The only factor affecting the score is the cyanotic color, which could indicate potential respiratory or circulatory issues. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the overall assessment provided in the scenario.

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