Nursing Elites

1. Twelve hours following a unilateral total knee replacement, a client reports being unable to sleep because of severe incisional pain. What is the best initial nursing action?

• A. Administer a prescribed sedative.
• B. Reposition the client for comfort.
• C. Apply ice packs to the surgical site.
• D. Instruct the client in the use of the prescribed patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Instructing the client in the use of the PCA pump is the best initial nursing action for managing severe incisional pain after knee replacement surgery. The PCA pump allows the client to self-administer pain medication effectively, promoting better pain management. Administering a sedative may mask the pain temporarily but doesn't address the root cause. Repositioning the client for comfort or applying ice packs may provide some relief but doesn't address the need for effective pain control as the PCA pump does.

2. The wife of a client with Parkinson's disease expresses concern because her husband has lost so much weight. Which teaching is best for the nurse to provide?

• A. Invite friends over regularly to share meal times
• B. Encourage the client to drink clear liquids between meals
• C. Coach the client to make an intentional effort to swallow
• D. Talk to the healthcare provider about prescribing an appetite stimulant

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best teaching for the nurse to provide is to invite friends over regularly to share meal times. This can help in making meal times more enjoyable for the client with Parkinson's disease, potentially encouraging him to eat more. Encouraging clear liquids between meals (choice B) may not address the underlying issue of weight loss. Coaching the client to make an intentional effort to swallow (choice C) may not be effective if the weight loss is due to other factors related to Parkinson's disease. While prescribing an appetite stimulant (choice D) could be an option, it is usually recommended to explore non-pharmacological interventions first, making choice A the most appropriate initial teaching intervention.

3. Ten hours following thrombolysis for an ST elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), a client is receiving a lidocaine infusion for isolated runs of ventricular tachycardia. Which finding should the nurse document in the EMR as a therapeutic response to the lidocaine infusion?

• A. Stabilization of BP ranges
• B. Cessation of chest pain
• C. Reduced heart rate
• D. Decreased frequency of episodes of VT

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Decreased frequency of ventricular tachycardia (VT) episodes indicates that the lidocaine infusion is effectively managing the ventricular tachycardia. Stabilization of BP ranges (choice A) may not directly correlate with the therapeutic response to lidocaine for VT. Cessation of chest pain (choice B) may indicate pain relief but does not specifically address the effectiveness of lidocaine for VT. Reduced heart rate (choice C) is not a direct indicator of the response to lidocaine for managing VT.

4. What should the nurse assess in an infant who has been diagnosed with hypertrophic pyloric stenosis?

• A. A history of diarrhea following each feeding
• B. Gastric pain evidenced by vigorous crying
• C. Poor appetite due to a poor sucking reflex
• D. An olive-shaped mass right of the midline

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. In hypertrophic pyloric stenosis, a key assessment finding is an olive-shaped mass in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen, to the right of the midline. This mass is palpable and represents the hypertrophied pyloric muscle. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because although they may be present in infants with feeding problems, the definitive assessment for hypertrophic pyloric stenosis is the presence of an olive-shaped mass on the right side of the abdomen, not a history of diarrhea, gastric pain, or poor appetite.

5. An older male client tells the nurse that he is losing sleep because he has to get up several times at night to go to the bathroom, that he has trouble starting his urinary stream, and that he does not feel like his bladder is ever completely empty. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Collect a urine specimen for culture analysis
• B. Review the client's fluid intake prior to bedtime
• C. Palpate the bladder above the symphysis pubis
• D. Obtain a fingerstick glucose level

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Palpating the bladder above the symphysis pubis is the most appropriate intervention in this scenario. It helps assess for urinary retention, which is a common issue in older males presenting with symptoms like difficulty starting urinary stream and feeling of incomplete bladder emptying. Collecting a urine specimen for culture analysis (Choice A) may be necessary in other situations like suspected urinary tract infection. Reviewing the client's fluid intake (Choice B) is important but does not directly address the current issue of urinary retention. Obtaining a fingerstick glucose level (Choice D) is not relevant to the client's urinary symptoms.

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