Nursing Elites

1. What most influences the severity of respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)?

• A. Poor cough and gag reflex
• B. The gestational age at birth
• C. Administering high concentrations of oxygen
• D. The sex of the infant

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The gestational age at birth most influences the severity of respiratory distress syndrome (RDS). RDS is caused by a deficiency of surfactant and it occurs almost exclusively in preterm, low-birth weight infants. Therefore, the gestational age at birth is a key factor in determining the likelihood and severity of RDS. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the primary factor influencing the severity of RDS.

2. Parents of a 6-month-old child, who has just been diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia, ask why it was not diagnosed earlier. What would be the best response by the nurse?

• A. Are you sure your child has iron deficiency anemia?
• B. This happens when the maternal stores of iron are depleted at about 6 months.
• C. This anemia is caused by blood loss.
• D. The child may not have had it for a long time.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best response by the nurse would be choice B: 'This happens when the maternal stores of iron are depleted at about 6 months.' Iron deficiency anemia becomes apparent at about 6 months of age in a full-term infant when the maternal stores of iron are depleted. Choice A is incorrect because it questions the diagnosis provided by the healthcare provider. Choice C is incorrect because iron deficiency anemia in infants is primarily due to insufficient iron intake rather than blood loss. Choice D is incorrect as iron deficiency anemia typically develops gradually due to inadequate iron intake.

3. A male client with acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) and Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia has a CD4+ T cell count of 200 cells/microliter. The client asks the nurse why he keeps getting these massive infections. Which pathophysiologic mechanism should the nurse describe in response to the client's question?

• A. Bone marrow suppression of white blood cells causes insufficient cells to phagocytize organisms.
• B. Exposure to multiple environmental infectious agents overburdens the immune system until it fails.
• C. The humoral immune response lacks B cells that form antibodies and opportunistic infections result.
• D. Inadequate numbers of T lymphocytes are available to initiate cellular immunity and macrophages.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: With a CD4+ T cell count of 200 cells/microliter, the client's immune system is severely compromised, leading to opportunistic infections.

4. While walking to the mailbox, an older adult male experiences sudden chest tightness and drives himself to the emergency department. When the client gets up to the desk of the triage nurse, he says his heart is pounding out of his chest as he clutches his chest and falls to the floor. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Prepare for cardiac defibrillation.
• B. Apply cardiac monitor leads.
• C. Obtain troponin serum levels.
• D. Palpate the client’s artery.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Palpating the client's artery is the priority intervention in this scenario because it helps determine if there is a pulse, which is crucial information in emergency situations like this. If the client is pulseless, immediate initiation of CPR is necessary. Applying cardiac monitor leads or obtaining troponin serum levels can wait until the presence of a pulse is confirmed. Cardiac defibrillation is not indicated without first assessing the client's pulse and cardiac rhythm.

5. The nurse is completing the preoperative assessment of a client who is scheduled for a laparoscopic cholecystectomy under general anesthesia. Which finding warrants notification of the HCP prior to proceeding with the scheduled procedure?

• A. Light yellow coloring of the client's skin and eyes.
• B. The client's blood pressure reading of 184/88 mm Hg.
• C. The client vomits 20 ml of clear yellowish fluid.
• D. The IV insertion site is red, swollen, and leaking IV fluid.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A blood pressure reading of 184/88 mm Hg indicates hypertension, which can increase the risks associated with surgery. The healthcare provider should be notified to manage the blood pressure before proceeding with the scheduled procedure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect: A, light yellow coloring of the client's skin and eyes may indicate jaundice, but it is not an immediate concern for the scheduled procedure; C, vomiting clear yellowish fluid may suggest bile reflux, but it does not pose an immediate risk to the procedure; D, red, swollen, and leaking IV insertion site indicates a local complication that requires intervention but does not have a direct impact on proceeding with the scheduled surgery.

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