HESI LPN
HESI Test Bank Medical Surgical Nursing
1. In the change of shift report, the nurse is told that a client has a stage 2 pressure ulcer. Which ulcer appearance is most likely to be observed?
- A. Shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed.
- B. Intact skin with non-blanchable redness.
- C. Full-thickness tissue loss with visible fat.
- D. Full-thickness tissue loss with exposed bone, tendon, or muscle.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed.' Stage 2 pressure ulcers involve partial-thickness skin loss and typically appear as shallow open ulcers with a red-pink wound bed. Choice B describes a stage 1 ulcer, where the skin is intact but shows non-blanchable redness. Choice C describes a stage 3 ulcer, with full-thickness tissue loss exposing fat. Choice D is characteristic of a stage 4 ulcer, where there is full-thickness tissue loss exposing bone, tendon, or muscle. Therefore, option A best fits the description of a stage 2 pressure ulcer.
2. While changing the dressing of a client with a leg ulcer, the nurse observes a red, tender, and swollen wound at the site of the lesion. Before reporting this finding to the healthcare provider, the nurse should note which of the client’s laboratory values?
- A. Neutrophil count.
- B. Hematocrit.
- C. Blood pH.
- D. Serum potassium and sodium.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Neutrophil count. Neutrophil count helps assess for infection, which is indicated by the redness, tenderness, and swelling of the wound. Elevated neutrophil count is a common sign of bacterial infection. Hematocrit (choice B) measures the proportion of blood volume that is occupied by red blood cells and is not directly related to wound infection. Blood pH (choice C) and serum potassium and sodium (choice D) are important for assessing acid-base balance and electrolyte levels but are not the primary indicators of wound infection.
3. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with a chest tube. Which finding indicates that the chest tube is functioning properly?
- A. Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber
- B. Tidaling in the water seal chamber
- C. Absence of drainage in the collection chamber
- D. Fluid level in the suction control chamber is below the prescribed level
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Tidaling in the water seal chamber indicates proper chest tube function. Tidaling refers to the rise and fall of fluid in the water seal with inhalation and exhalation, demonstrating the patency of the system. Continuous bubbling (Choice A) in the water seal chamber indicates an air leak. Absence of drainage in the collection chamber (Choice C) is not a desired finding as it suggests no drainage is occurring. A fluid level below the prescribed level in the suction control chamber (Choice D) may indicate inadequate suction.
4. The nurse is caring for a child who has been diagnosed with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). What is the most important intervention for the nurse?
- A. Help the child enroll in a special education class.
- B. Allay any feelings of guilt the parents may have.
- C. Explain to the parents that medications are lifelong.
- D. Teach the parents how to set limits.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most important intervention for the nurse in caring for a child with ADHD is to allay any feelings of guilt the parents may have. Parents of children with ADHD often experience guilt or self-blame, thinking they are responsible for their child's condition. By addressing and alleviating these feelings, the nurse can support the parents in a crucial way. Choice A is not the most important intervention because enrolling the child in a special education class might be a consideration but does not address the emotional needs of the parents. Choice C is incorrect because stating that medications are lifelong may cause unnecessary distress to the parents. Choice D is also not the most important intervention as setting limits is important but not as critical as addressing parental guilt and emotions.
5. Ten hours following thrombolysis for an ST elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), a client is receiving a lidocaine infusion for isolated runs of ventricular tachycardia. Which finding should the nurse document in the EMR as a therapeutic response to the lidocaine infusion?
- A. Stabilization of BP ranges
- B. Cessation of chest pain
- C. Reduced heart rate
- D. Decreased frequency of episodes of VT
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Decreased frequency of ventricular tachycardia (VT) episodes indicates that the lidocaine infusion is effectively managing the ventricular tachycardia. Stabilization of BP ranges (choice A) may not directly correlate with the therapeutic response to lidocaine for VT. Cessation of chest pain (choice B) may indicate pain relief but does not specifically address the effectiveness of lidocaine for VT. Reduced heart rate (choice C) is not a direct indicator of the response to lidocaine for managing VT.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access