Nursing Elites

1. In the change of shift report, the nurse is told that a client has a stage 2 pressure ulcer. Which ulcer appearance is most likely to be observed?

• A. Shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed.
• B. Intact skin with non-blanchable redness.
• C. Full-thickness tissue loss with visible fat.
• D. Full-thickness tissue loss with exposed bone, tendon, or muscle.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed.' Stage 2 pressure ulcers involve partial-thickness skin loss and typically appear as shallow open ulcers with a red-pink wound bed. Choice B describes a stage 1 ulcer, where the skin is intact but shows non-blanchable redness. Choice C describes a stage 3 ulcer, with full-thickness tissue loss exposing fat. Choice D is characteristic of a stage 4 ulcer, where there is full-thickness tissue loss exposing bone, tendon, or muscle. Therefore, option A best fits the description of a stage 2 pressure ulcer.

2. The nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client with heart failure. Which instruction should be included to prevent fluid overload?

• A. Weigh yourself daily and report a gain of 2 pounds in 24 hours
• B. Increase fluid intake to stay hydrated
• C. Consume a high-sodium diet to retain fluids
• D. Engage in vigorous exercise daily

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Weigh yourself daily and report a gain of 2 pounds in 24 hours.' Daily weight monitoring is crucial for detecting fluid retention early in clients with heart failure. Reporting a gain of 2 pounds in 24 hours can indicate fluid overload, prompting timely intervention. Choice B is incorrect because increasing fluid intake can exacerbate fluid overload in clients with heart failure. Choice C is incorrect as a high-sodium diet can worsen fluid retention. Choice D is incorrect as vigorous exercise can strain the heart and worsen heart failure symptoms.

3. A client with cirrhosis is receiving lactulose. What is the desired effect of this medication?

• A. Decrease blood glucose levels
• B. Reduce serum ammonia levels
• C. Increase platelet count
• D. Lower serum bilirubin levels

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Reduce serum ammonia levels. Lactulose is used to reduce serum ammonia levels in clients with cirrhosis, helping to prevent hepatic encephalopathy. Lactulose works by acidifying the colon, trapping ammonia for excretion. Decreasing blood glucose levels (choice A) is not the primary effect of lactulose. Increasing platelet count (choice C) and lowering serum bilirubin levels (choice D) are not direct effects of lactulose in the management of cirrhosis.

4. A male client with diabetes mellitus is transferred from the hospital to a rehabilitation facility following treatment for a stroke resulting in right hemiplegia. He tells the nurse that his feet are always uncomfortably cool at night, preventing him from falling asleep. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Provide a warming pad for his feet
• B. Medicate the client with a prescribed sedative.
• C. Use a bed cradle to keep the covers off his feet.
• D. Place warm blankets next to the client's feet.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Placing warm blankets next to the client's feet is the most appropriate action to provide warmth and comfort. This method is safe and effective in addressing the client's complaint of uncomfortably cool feet at night. Providing a warming pad (Choice A) may pose a risk of burns or injury, especially for a client with decreased sensation due to diabetes. Mediating the client with a sedative (Choice B) does not address the underlying issue of cool feet and may not be necessary. Using a bed cradle (Choice C) to hold the covers off the feet does not directly address the client's need for warmth and comfort.

5. A client is receiving a continuous infusion of normal saline at 125 ml/hour post abdominal surgery. The client is drowsy and complaining of constant abdominal pain and a headache. Urine output is 800 ml over the past 24h with a central venous pressure of 15 mmHg. The nurse notes respiratory crackle and bounding central pulses. Vital signs: temperature 101.2°F, Heart rate 96 beats/min, Respirations 24 breaths/min, and Blood pressure 160/90 mmHg. Which interventions should the nurse implement first?

• A. Review the last administration of IV pain medication.
• B. Administer a PRN dose of acetaminophen.
• C. Decrease IV fluids to keep the vein open (KVO) rate.
• D. Calculate total intake and output.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to decrease IV fluids to the keep vein open (KVO) rate. The client is showing signs of fluid volume excess, such as drowsiness, headache, elevated CVP, crackles, bounding pulses, and increased blood pressure. Decreasing the IV fluids will help prevent further fluid overload. Reviewing the last administration of IV pain medication (Choice A) may be necessary but addressing the fluid balance issue is the priority. Administering a PRN dose of acetaminophen (Choice B) may help with the headache but does not address the underlying fluid overload. Calculating total intake and output (Choice D) is important but does not directly address the immediate issue of fluid overload and its associated symptoms.

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