in the change of shift report the nurse is told that a client has stage 2 pressure ulcer which ulcer appearance is most likely to be observed
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HESI Test Bank Medical Surgical Nursing

1. In the change of shift report, the nurse is told that a client has a stage 2 pressure ulcer. Which ulcer appearance is most likely to be observed?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed.' Stage 2 pressure ulcers involve partial-thickness skin loss and typically appear as shallow open ulcers with a red-pink wound bed. Choice B describes a stage 1 ulcer, where the skin is intact but shows non-blanchable redness. Choice C describes a stage 3 ulcer, with full-thickness tissue loss exposing fat. Choice D is characteristic of a stage 4 ulcer, where there is full-thickness tissue loss exposing bone, tendon, or muscle. Therefore, option A best fits the description of a stage 2 pressure ulcer.

2. A client is receiving a secondary infusion of erythromycin 1 gram in 100 mL dextrose 5% in water (D5W) to be infused in 45 minutes. How many mL/hour should the nurse program the infusion pump?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To infuse 100 mL in 45 minutes, the infusion rate should be set to 133 mL/hour (100 mL / 0.75 hours). This calculation is obtained by dividing the total volume to be infused by the total time for infusion (100 mL / 0.75 hours = 133 mL/hour). Therefore, choice C is the correct answer. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately calculate the infusion rate required to deliver the medication within the specified time frame.

3. Which is a long-term complication of cleft lip and palate?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Faulty dentition.' The older child with cleft lip and palate may experience psychological difficulties due to the cosmetic appearance of the defect, issues with impaired speech, and faulty dentition. This can lead to problems with dental alignment, crowding, missing or malformed teeth, and other dental issues. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as cognitive impairment, altered growth and development, and physical abilities are not typically considered long-term complications of cleft lip and palate.

4. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is experiencing nausea and vomiting. What is the most important instruction the nurse should provide?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to check blood glucose levels frequently. During illness, such as nausea and vomiting, managing blood glucose levels is crucial in clients with type 1 diabetes mellitus. Monitoring blood glucose levels frequently helps in adjusting insulin doses appropriately, preventing complications like hyperglycemia or hypoglycemia. Choice A is incorrect because stopping insulin abruptly can lead to serious complications. Choice B is important but not the most critical in this scenario. Choice C is incorrect as high-carbohydrate foods may further affect blood glucose levels negatively.

5. The mother of a child with acute laryngotracheobronchitis (LTB) asks why her child must be kept NPO. Which response would be the most correct?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because rapid respirations predispose to aspiration in a child with acute laryngotracheobronchitis. Choice A is incorrect because epinephrine does not directly relate to the need for NPO status. Choice B is incorrect as hydration with IV fluids is not the primary reason for keeping the child NPO. Choice C is incorrect as the child being hungry is not the main concern when keeping a child NPO in this situation.

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