Nursing Elites

1. A client who is newly diagnosed with emphysema is being prepared for discharge. Which instruction is best for the nurse to provide the client to assist them with dyspnea self-management?

• A. Allow additional time to complete physical activities to reduce oxygen demand.
• B. Practice inhaling through the nose and exhaling slowly through pursed lips.
• C. Use a humidifier to increase home air quality humidity between 30-50%.
• D. Strengthen abdominal muscles by alternating leg raises during exhalation.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Instructing the client to practice inhaling through the nose and exhaling slowly through pursed lips can help improve oxygenation and reduce dyspnea. This technique, known as pursed lip breathing, can help regulate breathing patterns and decrease the work of breathing in clients with emphysema. Choice A is incorrect because allowing additional time for physical activities does not directly address dyspnea management. Choice C is incorrect as using a humidifier, although beneficial for respiratory conditions, does not specifically assist with dyspnea self-management. Choice D is also incorrect as strengthening abdominal muscles through leg raises does not directly target dyspnea relief.

2. A male client with acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) and Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia has a CD4+ T cell count of 200 cells/microliter. The client asks the nurse why he keeps getting these massive infections. Which pathophysiologic mechanism should the nurse describe in response to the client's question?

• A. Bone marrow suppression of white blood cells causes insufficient cells to phagocytize organisms.
• B. Exposure to multiple environmental infectious agents overburdens the immune system until it fails.
• C. The humoral immune response lacks B cells that form antibodies and opportunistic infections result.
• D. Inadequate numbers of T lymphocytes are available to initiate cellular immunity and macrophages.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: With a CD4+ T cell count of 200 cells/microliter, the client's immune system is severely compromised, leading to opportunistic infections.

3. The nurse determines that an adult client who is admitted to the post-anesthesia care unit (PACU) following abdominal surgery has a tympanic temperature of 94.6°F (34.4°C), a pulse rate of 88 beats/minute, a respiratory rate of 14 breaths/minute, and a blood pressure of 94/68 mmHg. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Check the BP every five minutes for one hour.
• B. Raise the HOB 60 to 90 degrees.
• C. Ask the client to cough and deep breathe.
• D. Take the client’s temperature using another method.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Taking the temperature using another method is essential in this situation to verify if the low reading is accurate and requires further intervention. The tympanic temperature of 94.6°F may be inaccurate due to various factors such as improper technique or environmental conditions. Checking the blood pressure every five minutes for one hour (Choice A) is not the priority in this case as the low blood pressure reading alone does not necessitate such frequent monitoring. Raising the head of the bed 60 to 90 degrees (Choice B) is not directly related to addressing the low temperature and blood pressure. Asking the client to cough and deep breathe (Choice C) is a general intervention that may not directly address the specific concern of the low temperature reading.

4. In the change of shift report, the nurse is told that a client has a stage 2 pressure ulcer. Which ulcer appearance is most likely to be observed?

• A. Shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed.
• B. Intact skin with non-blanchable redness.
• C. Full-thickness tissue loss with visible fat.
• D. Full-thickness tissue loss with exposed bone, tendon, or muscle.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed.' Stage 2 pressure ulcers involve partial-thickness skin loss and typically appear as shallow open ulcers with a red-pink wound bed. Choice B describes a stage 1 ulcer, where the skin is intact but shows non-blanchable redness. Choice C describes a stage 3 ulcer, with full-thickness tissue loss exposing fat. Choice D is characteristic of a stage 4 ulcer, where there is full-thickness tissue loss exposing bone, tendon, or muscle. Therefore, option A best fits the description of a stage 2 pressure ulcer.

5. A client is admitted to the medical unit during an exacerbation of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). It is most important to report which assessment finding to the healthcare provider?

• A. Low-grade fever.
• B. Muscle atrophy.
• C. Hematuria.
• D. Joint pain.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Hematuria is the most important assessment finding to report to the healthcare provider in a client with SLE during an exacerbation. Hematuria indicates kidney involvement, a serious complication of SLE that requires prompt medical attention. While low-grade fever, muscle atrophy, and joint pain are symptoms that can occur in SLE, hematuria signifies potential renal damage, which is a critical concern in SLE exacerbations.

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