Nursing Elites

1. A client who is newly diagnosed with emphysema is being prepared for discharge. Which instruction is best for the nurse to provide the client to assist them with dyspnea self-management?

• A. Allow additional time to complete physical activities to reduce oxygen demand.
• B. Practice inhaling through the nose and exhaling slowly through pursed lips.
• C. Use a humidifier to increase home air quality humidity between 30-50%.
• D. Strengthen abdominal muscles by alternating leg raises during exhalation.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Instructing the client to practice inhaling through the nose and exhaling slowly through pursed lips can help improve oxygenation and reduce dyspnea. This technique, known as pursed lip breathing, can help regulate breathing patterns and decrease the work of breathing in clients with emphysema. Choice A is incorrect because allowing additional time for physical activities does not directly address dyspnea management. Choice C is incorrect as using a humidifier, although beneficial for respiratory conditions, does not specifically assist with dyspnea self-management. Choice D is also incorrect as strengthening abdominal muscles through leg raises does not directly target dyspnea relief.

2. The mother of a child with acute laryngotracheobronchitis (LTB) asks why her child must be kept NPO. Which response would be the most correct?

• A. The epinephrine given causes nausea and vomiting.
• B. The child is being hydrated with IV fluids.
• C. The child is not hungry.
• D. The child's rapid respirations pose a risk for aspiration.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because rapid respirations predispose to aspiration in a child with acute laryngotracheobronchitis. Choice A is incorrect because epinephrine does not directly relate to the need for NPO status. Choice B is incorrect as hydration with IV fluids is not the primary reason for keeping the child NPO. Choice C is incorrect as the child being hungry is not the main concern when keeping a child NPO in this situation.

3. Which statement correctly explains the etiology of Down syndrome?

• A. There is an extra chromosome on the 21st pair.
• B. There is a missing chromosome on the 21st pair.
• C. There are two pairs of the 21st chromosome.
• D. The 21st chromosome pair is missing.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'There is an extra chromosome on the 21st pair.' Down syndrome is caused by the presence of an extra copy of chromosome 21, known as trisomy 21. This additional genetic material leads to the characteristics associated with Down syndrome. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Down syndrome is not due to a missing chromosome or having two pairs of the 21st chromosome; it results from the presence of an extra chromosome on the 21st pair.

4. A client is currently receiving an infusion labeled as 5% dextrose injection 500 ml with heparin sodium 25,000 units at 14 mL/hour per pump. A prescription is received to change the rate of the infusion to heparin 1,000 units/hour. How many ml/hour should the nurse program the infusion pump?

• A. 16 ml/hour.
• B. 18 ml/hour.
• C. 20 ml/hour.
• D. 22 ml/hour.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To deliver 1,000 units/hour from a solution with 25,000 units in 500 ml, the rate should be set to 20 ml/hour. This is calculated by determining that the solution has 50 units/ml (25,000 units / 500 ml = 50 units/ml) and then dividing the required 1,000 units/hour by 50 units/ml, resulting in 20 ml/hour. Therefore, the nurse should program the infusion pump to deliver heparin at 20 ml/hour. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the calculated rate of 20 ml/hour.

5. An adolescent female asks the nurse about taking retinoic acid (Accutane). What guidance should be provided by the nurse?

• A. The medication should be used for 10 weeks only.
• B. The medication requires that sexually active females use contraception.
• C. The medication lowers hemoglobin levels very quickly.
• D. The medication has few side effects.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct guidance the nurse should provide is that sexually active females must use contraception while taking Accutane and for 1 month after the 20 weeks it is prescribed. Choice A is incorrect because Accutane is typically taken for a longer duration than 10 weeks. Choice C is incorrect because Accutane does not lower hemoglobin levels quickly. Choice D is incorrect as Accutane is known for having many side effects, including the risk of birth defects.

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