HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam 2024
1. The nurse is calculating the one-minute Apgar score for a newborn male infant and determines that his heart rate is 150 beats/minute, he has a vigorous cry, his muscle tone is good with total flexion, he has quick reflex irritability, and his color is dusky and cyanotic. What Apgar score should the nurse assign to the infant?
- A. 8
- B. 9
- C. 6
- D. 7
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 8. The Apgar score is calculated based on five parameters: heart rate, respiratory effort, muscle tone, reflex irritability, and color. In this case, the infant has a good heart rate, vigorous cry, good muscle tone, and quick reflex irritability, which would total to 8. The only factor affecting the score is the cyanotic color, which could indicate potential respiratory or circulatory issues. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the overall assessment provided in the scenario.
2. The school nurse is screening students for spinal abnormalities and instructs each student to stand up and then touch their toes. Which finding indicates that a student should be referred for scoliosis evaluation?
- A. Inability to touch their toes
- B. Asymmetry of the shoulders when standing upright
- C. Audible crepitus when bending
- D. An exaggerated upper thoracic convex curvature
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Asymmetry of the shoulders when standing upright is a common indicator of scoliosis. This finding suggests a possible spinal abnormality and should prompt further evaluation. Choices A, C, and D are not specific indicators of scoliosis. Inability to touch their toes may indicate flexibility issues or tightness in the hamstrings. Audible crepitus when bending may suggest joint degeneration or inflammation. An exaggerated upper thoracic convex curvature could indicate poor posture or other spinal abnormalities but is not directly indicative of scoliosis.
3. The nurse is preparing to send a client to the cardiac catheterization lab for an angioplasty. Which client report is most important for the nurse to explore further prior to the start of the procedure?
- A. Verbalizes a fear of being in a confined space.
- B. Drank a glass of water in the past 2 hours.
- C. Reports left chest wall pain prior to admission.
- D. Experiences facial swelling after eating crab
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Left chest wall pain could indicate ongoing cardiac issues or instability, which needs to be assessed before proceeding with the procedure. This pain could be related to the heart and may suggest a potential risk during the angioplasty. Options A, B, and D do not directly relate to cardiac complications during the procedure, making them less urgent for immediate assessment. Fear of confined spaces, drinking water, and facial swelling after eating crab are not immediate risks to the client's safety in the context of a cardiac catheterization procedure.
4. When conducting diet teaching for a client who is on a postoperative full liquid diet, which foods should the nurse encourage the client to eat?
- A. Vanilla frozen yogurt
- B. Vegetable juice
- C. Clear beef broth
- D. Canned fruit cocktail
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer should be provided as choice E: Vanilla frozen yogurt. For a postoperative full liquid diet, the nurse should encourage the client to eat foods that are fully liquid and easy to digest. Vanilla frozen yogurt is a suitable choice as it provides calories and nutrients while being in a liquid form. Creamy peanut butter, vegetable juice, and canned fruit cocktail are not appropriate for a full liquid diet as they are not fully liquid and may not be easy to digest. Creamy peanut butter is solid, vegetable juice is not fully liquid, and canned fruit cocktail contains solid pieces.
5. In what sequence should the nurse prepare the dose of insulin for a client whose finger stick glucose is 210 mg/dl and is receiving a sliding scale dose of short-acting insulin before breakfast?
- A. Clean the vial's rubber stopper with an alcohol swab, withdraw the correct dose of insulin, and then inject air equal to the insulin dose into the vial.
- B. Inject air equal to the insulin dose into the vial, withdraw the correct dose of insulin, and then clean the vial's rubber stopper with an alcohol swab.
- C. Withdraw the correct dose of insulin, inject air equal to the insulin dose into the vial, and then clean the vial's rubber stopper with an alcohol swab.
- D. Clean the vial's rubber stopper with an alcohol swab, inject air equal to the insulin dose into the vial, and then withdraw the correct dose of insulin.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct sequence for preparing a dose of insulin involves ensuring proper aseptic technique. First, clean the vial's rubber stopper with an alcohol swab to prevent contamination. Second, withdraw the correct dose of insulin to be administered. Lastly, inject air equal to the insulin dose into the vial to maintain proper pressure for withdrawing the medication. This sequence ensures the medication is prepared safely and accurately. Choice A is correct as it follows this sequence. Choices B, C, and D present incorrect sequences that may compromise patient safety by not following the correct aseptic technique. Choice B injects air into the vial before withdrawing insulin, which is incorrect. Choice C reverses the order of withdrawing insulin and injecting air. Choice D withdraws the insulin before injecting air, which can affect the pressure inside the vial and lead to inaccurate dosing.
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