HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam 2024
1. The nurse is calculating the one-minute Apgar score for a newborn male infant and determines that his heart rate is 150 beats/minute, he has a vigorous cry, his muscle tone is good with total flexion, he has quick reflex irritability, and his color is dusky and cyanotic. What Apgar score should the nurse assign to the infant?
- A. 8
- B. 9
- C. 6
- D. 7
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 8. The Apgar score is calculated based on five parameters: heart rate, respiratory effort, muscle tone, reflex irritability, and color. In this case, the infant has a good heart rate, vigorous cry, good muscle tone, and quick reflex irritability, which would total to 8. The only factor affecting the score is the cyanotic color, which could indicate potential respiratory or circulatory issues. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the overall assessment provided in the scenario.
2. After medicating the client for pain and collecting granules and stones from strained urine, which action is most important for the nurse to implement next?
- A. Send the calculi for laboratory analysis of stone composition.
- B. Evaluate the client for persistent pain.
- C. Assess the clarity of urine.
- D. Encourage high fluid intake to produce urine output of 2L/day.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Sending the calculi for analysis is crucial in determining the type of stone present. Identifying the stone composition helps in developing an effective treatment plan and preventive measures to avoid future episodes of urolithiasis. This step is essential in providing targeted care for the client. Options B, C, and D are not the most important actions at this point. While evaluating for persistent pain is essential, determining the stone composition takes precedence to guide appropriate interventions.
3. A male client reports the onset of numbness and tingling in his fingers and around his mouth. Which lab value is important for the nurse to review before contacting the health care provider?
- A. capillary glucose
- B. urine specific gravity
- C. Serum calcium
- D. white blood cell count
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum calcium. Numbness and tingling can be indicative of hypocalcemia, which can affect the nervous system. Reviewing serum calcium levels is crucial to address this potential issue. Options A, B, and D are not directly related to the symptoms described by the client and are not typically associated with numbness and tingling around the mouth and fingers. Capillary glucose levels are more relevant in assessing for diabetes or monitoring glucose control. Urine specific gravity is useful in evaluating hydration status. White blood cell count is typically checked to assess infection or immune response, which are not indicated by the client's symptoms of numbness and tingling.
4. A male client with schizophrenia is jerking his neck and smacking his lips. Which finding indicates to the nurse that he is experiencing an irreversible side effect of antipsychotic agents?
- A. Cramping muscular pain
- B. Worming movements of the tongue
- C. Decreased tendon reflexes
- D. Dry oral mucous membranes
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Worming movements of the tongue. Worming movements of the tongue, known as tardive dyskinesia, are an irreversible side effect of antipsychotic medications. Tardive dyskinesia is characterized by involuntary, repetitive movements of the tongue, lips, face, trunk, and extremities. Cramping muscular pain (Choice A) is more indicative of dystonia, an extrapyramidal side effect that can be treated effectively with antiparkinsonian medications. Decreased tendon reflexes (Choice C) are not typically associated with irreversible side effects of antipsychotic agents. Dry oral mucous membranes (Choice D) are not specific to irreversible side effects of antipsychotic medications.
5. The healthcare provider prescribes a fluid challenge of 0.9% sodium chloride 1,000 ml to be infused over 4 hours. The IV administration set delivers 10gtt/ml. How many gtt/minute should the nurse regulate the infusion? (Enter a numeric value only. If rounding is required, round to the nearest whole number.)
- A. 42
- B.
- C.
- D.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the rate: (1000 ml / 4 hours) = 250 ml/hour; (250 ml/hour) / (60 minutes/hour) = 4.17 ml/minute; (4.17 ml/minute) * (10 gtt/ml) = 41.7 gtt/minute, rounded to 42 gtt/minute. Therefore, the nurse should regulate the infusion at 42 gtt/minute to deliver the prescribed fluid challenge accurately. The other choices are incorrect as they do not reflect the correct calculation based on the given information.
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