Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is calculating the one-minute Apgar score for a newborn male infant and determines that his heart rate is 150 beats/minute, he has a vigorous cry, his muscle tone is good with total flexion, he has quick reflex irritability, and his color is dusky and cyanotic. What Apgar score should the nurse assign to the infant?

• A. 8
• B. 9
• C. 6
• D. 7

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 8. The Apgar score is calculated based on five parameters: heart rate, respiratory effort, muscle tone, reflex irritability, and color. In this case, the infant has a good heart rate, vigorous cry, good muscle tone, and quick reflex irritability, which would total to 8. The only factor affecting the score is the cyanotic color, which could indicate potential respiratory or circulatory issues. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the overall assessment provided in the scenario.

2. The nurse is caring for a newborn who arrives in the nursery following a precipitous birth on the way to the hospital. A drug screen of the mother reveals the presence of cocaine metabolites. The infant has a heart rate of 175 beats/minute, cries continuously, is irritable, and is hyperreactive to stimuli. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in this infant’s plan of care?

• A. Initiate infant sepsis protocol
• B. Implement seizure precautions
• C. Refer to protective child services
• D. Formula feed every 3 hours

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The infant's symptoms, such as a high heart rate, continuous crying, irritability, and hyperreactivity, suggest possible withdrawal effects due to maternal cocaine use. These symptoms can lead to seizures. Therefore, the priority intervention is to implement seizure precautions to ensure the infant's safety. Initiating the infant sepsis protocol is not indicated based on the symptoms presented. Referring to protective child services is important but not the immediate priority. Formula feeding every 3 hours is a routine care measure but does not address the urgent need to prevent potential seizures.

3. When admitting a client diagnosed with active tuberculosis to isolation, which infection control measures should the nurse implement?

• A. Negative pressure environment
• B. Contact precautions
• C. Droplet precautions
• D. Protective environment

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Negative pressure environment. Tuberculosis is transmitted through airborne particles, so a negative pressure room is essential to prevent the spread of the bacteria. Choice B, contact precautions, are used for infections spread by direct or indirect contact, not for tuberculosis. Choice C, droplet precautions, are for infections transmitted through respiratory droplets, not airborne particles like tuberculosis. Choice D, protective environment, is used for protecting immunocompromised patients from outside pathogens, not for preventing the spread of tuberculosis.

4. A male client with hypertension, who received new antihypertensive prescriptions at his last visit, returns to the clinic two weeks later to evaluate his blood pressure (BP). His BP is 158/106, and he admits that he has not been taking the prescribed medication because the drugs make him 'feel bad.' In explaining the need for hypertension control, the nurse should stress that an elevated BP places the client at risk for which pathophysiological condition?

• A. Feed the client a snack
• B. Empty the urinary drainage bag
• C. Offer the client oral fluids
• D. Stroke secondary to hemorrhage

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Elevated blood pressure, if left uncontrolled, significantly increases the risk of stroke secondary to hemorrhage and other cardiovascular events. This condition can lead to serious complications due to the increased pressure on the blood vessels in the brain. Choices A, B, and C are unrelated to the potential pathophysiological consequences of uncontrolled hypertension and are not the primary concern in this scenario.

5. Following morning care, a client with C-5 spinal cord injury who is sitting in a wheelchair becomes flushed and complains of a headache. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Check for any kinks or obstructions in the client’s Foley tubing
• B. Assess the client’s blood pressure every 15 minutes
• C. Administer a prescribed PRN dose of hydralazine (Apresoline)
• D. Educate the client on recognizing symptoms of dysreflexia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with a C-5 spinal cord injury experiencing flushing and a headache, the priority intervention is to assess the client's blood pressure every 15 minutes. These symptoms could indicate autonomic dysreflexia, a potentially life-threatening condition. Assessing the blood pressure is crucial to identify and address this emergency situation promptly. Checking for kinks or obstructions in the Foley tubing (Choice A) is important but not the priority in this scenario. Administering hydralazine (Choice C) without knowing the blood pressure could be harmful as it may lead to a sudden drop in blood pressure. Educating the client on recognizing symptoms of dysreflexia (Choice D) is important for long-term management but is not the immediate action needed in this acute situation.

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