HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam 2024
1. The nurse is calculating the one-minute Apgar score for a newborn male infant and determines that his heart rate is 150 beats/minute, he has a vigorous cry, his muscle tone is good with total flexion, he has quick reflex irritability, and his color is dusky and cyanotic. What Apgar score should the nurse assign to the infant?
- A. 8
- B. 9
- C. 6
- D. 7
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 8. The Apgar score is calculated based on five parameters: heart rate, respiratory effort, muscle tone, reflex irritability, and color. In this case, the infant has a good heart rate, vigorous cry, good muscle tone, and quick reflex irritability, which would total to 8. The only factor affecting the score is the cyanotic color, which could indicate potential respiratory or circulatory issues. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the overall assessment provided in the scenario.
2. Which client is at the greatest risk for developing delirium?
- A. An adult client who cannot sleep due to constant pain
- B. An older client who attempted suicide 1 month ago
- C. A young adult who takes antipsychotic medications twice a day
- D. A middle-aged woman who uses a tank for supplemental oxygen
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because older adults are at higher risk for delirium, especially following a recent suicide attempt, which can be a significant stressor. Choice A is less likely to develop delirium solely due to difficulty sleeping; delirium is more complex and multifactorial. Choice C, a young adult taking antipsychotic medications, may be at risk for other conditions but not necessarily delirium. Choice D, a middle-aged woman using supplemental oxygen, is not directly linked to an increased risk of delirium compared to the older client who recently attempted suicide.
3. A child with leukemia is admitted for chemotherapy, and the nursing diagnosis, 'altered nutrition, less than body requirements related to anorexia, nausea, vomiting' is identified. Which intervention should the nurse include in this child's plan of care?
- A. Allow the child to eat foods desired and tolerated
- B. Restrict foods brought from fast food restaurants
- C. Recommend eating the same foods as siblings eat at home
- D. Encourage a variety of large portions of food at every meal
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Allowing the child to choose foods can help improve intake and reduce nausea. Choice A is the correct intervention as it empowers the child to select foods they desire and can tolerate, which is crucial in ensuring adequate nutrition intake. Choice B is incorrect because restricting certain foods can further limit the child's options and may not address the underlying issues. Choice C is incorrect as it doesn't consider the specific needs and preferences of the child with altered nutrition. Choice D is incorrect as encouraging large portions of food at every meal may be overwhelming for a child experiencing anorexia, nausea, and vomiting.
4. A female client on the mental health unit frequently asks the nurse when she can be discharged. Then, becoming more anxious, she begins to pace the hallway. What intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Review the current treatment plan with the client
- B. Inform the healthcare provider about the client’s behaviors
- C. Determine if the client has PRN medication for anxiety
- D. Explore the client’s reasons for wanting to be discharged
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Exploring the client’s reasons for wanting to be discharged should be the first intervention as it helps to address underlying anxieties and concerns. By understanding the client's motivations, the nurse can provide appropriate support and interventions. It can also reduce distress and improve the therapeutic relationship. Reviewing the treatment plan (Choice A) may be important but addressing the immediate distress takes precedence. Informing the healthcare provider (Choice B) can be considered later if necessary. Determining if the client has PRN medication (Choice C) is relevant, but exploring the underlying reasons for the desire to be discharged is more beneficial in this situation.
5. An adult client with a broken femur is transferred to the medical-surgical unit to await surgical internal fixation after the application of an external traction device to stabilize the leg. An hour after an opioid analgesic was administered, the client reports muscle spasms and pain at the fracture site. While waiting for the client to be transported to surgery, which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Observe for signs of deep vein thrombosis.
- B. Administer a PRN dose of a muscle relaxant.
- C. Check the client’s most recent electrolyte values.
- D. Reduce the weight on the traction device.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer a PRN dose of a muscle relaxant. Muscle spasms and pain might be relieved by muscle relaxants, which are appropriate before surgery. Choice A is incorrect because the client is experiencing muscle spasms, not signs of deep vein thrombosis. Choice C is not the most immediate action needed in this situation. Choice D is incorrect because reducing the weight on the traction device would not directly address the muscle spasms and pain reported by the client.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access