HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam Test Bank
1. Which entry in the client record best reflects significant data on a male client who is admitted with complaints of chest pain?
- A. Nurse will check client q1h for the presence of chest pain
- B. Client has a nervous, tense personality and is likely to overreact
- C. Client states he will notify the nurse if chest pain returns
- D. Client understands how to use the call button and the telephone
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because documenting the client's statement about notifying the nurse if chest pain returns provides direct, relevant information about their condition. This entry indicates the client's awareness of their symptoms and their willingness to seek assistance, which is crucial in managing chest pain. Choice A is incorrect because it focuses on the nurse's actions rather than the client's condition. Choice B is irrelevant as it discusses the client's personality rather than their current health issue. Choice D, though related to communication, does not directly address the client's chest pain complaint.
2. The mother of a teenager is told that her son has recently been found stealing from other students at school. The mother's response is, 'I cannot think about that today.' The nurse determines that this mother is using which defense mechanism?
- A. Suppression
- B. Repression
- C. Sublimation
- D. Undoing
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Suppression. Suppression involves a conscious effort to avoid dealing with distressing thoughts or feelings. In this case, the mother is consciously choosing not to think about her son's behavior. Choice B, Repression, involves unconsciously blocking out distressing thoughts or feelings. Choice C, Sublimation, is the channeling of unacceptable impulses into socially acceptable behaviors, which is not demonstrated in this scenario. Choice D, Undoing, is a defense mechanism where a person tries to undo or reverse a negative thought or action by performing a contrary behavior, which is not applicable here.
3. The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has undergone abdominal surgery. What instruction should the nurse include?
- A. Avoid heavy lifting for at least 6 weeks
- B. Limit fluid intake to reduce the risk of infection
- C. Resume normal activities as soon as possible
- D. Avoid driving for at least 2 weeks
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Avoid heavy lifting for at least 6 weeks.' After abdominal surgery, it is essential to avoid heavy lifting to prevent complications such as incisional hernias and support proper healing. Choice B, 'Limit fluid intake to reduce the risk of infection,' is incorrect because adequate fluid intake is necessary for wound healing and preventing dehydration. Choice C, 'Resume normal activities as soon as possible,' is incorrect as it may increase the risk of complications and delay healing. Choice D, 'Avoid driving for at least 2 weeks,' is incorrect as the restriction on driving may vary depending on the type of surgery and individual recovery.
4. A client with a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC) line has a fever. What client assessment is most important for the nurse to perform?
- A. Observe the PICC line site for inflammation.
- B. Encourage increasing fluid intake.
- C. Monitor blood pressure regularly.
- D. Assess skin turgor for dehydration.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to observe the PICC line site for inflammation. When a client with a PICC line develops a fever, it could indicate an infection related to the catheter. Assessing the PICC line site for signs of inflammation, such as redness, warmth, swelling, or drainage, is crucial in identifying a potential infection early. Choice B is incorrect because increasing fluid intake is not directly related to assessing a PICC line for infection. Choice C is not the most appropriate assessment in this situation as monitoring blood pressure may not directly help in identifying the cause of the fever. Choice D is unrelated to the assessment of a fever in a client with a PICC line.
5. A client diagnosed with a deep vein thrombus (DVT) followed by a diagnosis of pulmonary embolism (PE) is receiving heparin via an infusion pump at a rate of 1400 u/hour. The client tells the nurse, “I wish this medicine would hurry up and dissolve this clot in my lung so that I can go homeâ€. What response is best for the nurse to provide?
- A. Heparin prevents further clot formation, but your risk of bleeding needs to be monitored closely
- B. You seem to be concerned about the length of time it takes for Heparin to dissolve this clot
- C. Let me contact your healthcare provider to discuss the possibility of receiving IV heparin therapy at home
- D. Why are you so anxious to leave the hospital when you know you are not well enough yet?
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct response is A: 'Heparin prevents further clot formation, but your risk of bleeding needs to be monitored closely.' Heparin is an anticoagulant that prevents further clot formation, but it does not quickly dissolve existing clots. It is crucial for the nurse to educate the client about the purpose of heparin and the necessity for close monitoring of bleeding risks. Choice B is incorrect as it does not address the misunderstanding about heparin's mechanism of action. Choice C is incorrect as home administration of IV heparin therapy requires careful consideration and should not be suggested without a thorough assessment. Choice D is incorrect as it does not address the client's misconception about heparin's role in dissolving clots and instead focuses on the client's desire to leave the hospital.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access