Nursing Elites

1. The settings on a client's synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation (SIMV) are respiratory rate 12 breaths/minute, tidal volume at 600 mL, FiO2 35%, and positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) 5 cm H2O. Which assessment finding necessitates immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Bilateral crackles in the lung bases.
• B. Low-pressure indicator alarm.
• C. Oxygen saturation of 91%.
• D. Respiratory rate of 18 breaths/minute.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A low-pressure alarm may indicate a disconnection or leak in the system, which needs immediate intervention. Bilateral crackles in the lung bases may indicate fluid overload but do not require immediate intervention in this case. An oxygen saturation of 91% is concerning but not as urgent as a potential equipment issue. A respiratory rate of 18 breaths/minute is higher than the set rate but may not necessitate immediate intervention unless accompanied by other distress symptoms.

2. In planning nursing care for a bedfast client, which factor is most likely to contribute to the development of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in an immobile client?

• A. Atherosclerotic plaque formation.
• B. Stasis of blood flow.
• C. Endothelial damage.
• D. Atherosclerotic vessel changes.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Stasis of blood flow. Stasis of blood flow in immobile clients increases the risk of DVT, as lack of movement can cause blood to pool and clot. Atherosclerotic plaque formation (choice A) and atherosclerotic vessel changes (choice D) are more related to arterial diseases rather than DVT. Endothelial damage (choice C) can contribute to the development of DVT, but in an immobile client, stasis of blood flow is the most significant factor.

3. Based on this strip, what is the correct interpretation of this rhythm?

• A. Atrial fibrillation.
• B. Premature atrial fibrillation.
• C. AV block.
• D. Ventricular tachycardia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct interpretation of the rhythm strip is atrial fibrillation. This arrhythmia is characterized by an irregular heartbeat and the absence of distinct P waves. Choice B, premature atrial fibrillation, is incorrect as there is no indication of premature beats in the strip. Choice C, AV block, is also incorrect as there is no evidence of conduction delays between the atria and ventricles. Choice D, ventricular tachycardia, is not supported by the absence of wide QRS complexes typically seen in this arrhythmia.

4. A client who has a history of unstable angina is admitted to the emergency department with chest pain.

• A. Chest pain relieved by rest.
• B. Chest pain unrelieved after taking 3 sequential nitroglycerin tablets.
• C. Chest pain occurring only with exertion.
• D. Chest pain lasting less than 5 minutes.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Chest pain unrelieved after taking 3 sequential nitroglycerin tablets indicates a possible myocardial infarction and requires immediate medical attention.

5. Which finding should the nurse report immediately for a client receiving a blood transfusion?

• A. Mild itching and rash
• B. Temperature increase of 1.5°F (0.8°C)
• C. Heart rate increase of 10 beats per minute
• D. Slight headache

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A temperature increase of 1.5°F (0.8°C) during a blood transfusion is a significant finding that can indicate a transfusion reaction, such as a febrile non-hemolytic reaction, which can progress to more severe reactions. It is crucial to report this immediately to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and intervention. Mild itching and rash (choice A) are common minor reactions to blood transfusions and can be managed appropriately without immediate concern. An increase in heart rate by 10 beats per minute (choice C) is within an acceptable range and may be a normal compensatory response to the transfusion. A slight headache (choice D) is a common complaint and is not typically associated with severe transfusion reactions; thus, it does not require immediate reporting compared to the temperature increase.

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