the settings on a clients synchronized intermediate mandatory ventilation simv are respiratory rate 12 breathsminute tidal volume at 600 ml fio2 35 an
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HESI LPN

Medical Surgical Assignment Exam HESI Quizlet

1. The settings on a client's synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation (SIMV) are respiratory rate 12 breaths/minute, tidal volume at 600 mL, FiO2 35%, and positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) 5 cm H2O. Which assessment finding necessitates immediate intervention by the nurse?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A low-pressure alarm may indicate a disconnection or leak in the system, which needs immediate intervention. Bilateral crackles in the lung bases may indicate fluid overload but do not require immediate intervention in this case. An oxygen saturation of 91% is concerning but not as urgent as a potential equipment issue. A respiratory rate of 18 breaths/minute is higher than the set rate but may not necessitate immediate intervention unless accompanied by other distress symptoms.

2. How is gastroesophageal reflux (GER) typically treated in infants?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Gastroesophageal reflux (GER) in infants is typically treated by thickening the formula or breast milk with cereal. This helps reduce reflux episodes by making the feedings heavier and less likely to come back up. Placing the infant NPO (nothing by mouth) is not the typical treatment for GER as infants need proper nutrition for growth. Placing the infant to sleep on the side is not recommended due to the risk of SIDS; infants should be placed on their back to sleep. Switching the infant to cow's milk is also not a treatment for GER, as cow's milk can be harder to digest and may exacerbate symptoms.

3. The nurse is teaching a client how to collect a sputum specimen. Which steps should the nurse instruct the client to follow when collecting sputum?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to breathe deeply followed by coughing up the sputum. This method ensures that the specimen is collected from the lower respiratory tract and is not contaminated by saliva. Choice A (swallowing) does not result in sputum collection, while choice B (spitting into a cup) may lead to saliva contamination. Choice D (clearing the throat) is not an effective way to collect sputum as it may involve getting rid of saliva, not sputum.

4. Which pathology is associated with an asthma condition?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Recurrent spasms of the airways accompanied by edema and mucus production. Asthma is characterized by bronchospasms, inflammation, swelling of the airways, and increased mucus production. This leads to airway constriction, making it difficult to breathe. Choices A, C, and D do not represent the typical pathology seen in asthma. Chronic dilation and inflammation of the bronchi (Choice A) is more characteristic of bronchiectasis, progressive loss of lung function due to destruction of alveolar walls (Choice C) is seen in conditions like emphysema, and infection of the lung parenchyma (Choice D) is more related to conditions like pneumonia.

5. A client is receiving intravenous potassium chloride for hypokalemia. Which action should the nurse take to prevent complications during the infusion?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action to prevent complications during the infusion of potassium chloride is to monitor the infusion site for signs of infiltration. Rapid administration can lead to adverse effects, including cardiac arrhythmias. Using a syringe pump is not typically necessary for this infusion. Flushing the IV line with normal saline is a good practice but not directly related to preventing complications specifically during the infusion of potassium chloride.

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