the settings on a clients synchronized intermediate mandatory ventilation simv are respiratory rate 12 breathsminute tidal volume at 600 ml fio2 35 an
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Medical Surgical Assignment Exam HESI Quizlet

1. The settings on a client's synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation (SIMV) are respiratory rate 12 breaths/minute, tidal volume at 600 mL, FiO2 35%, and positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) 5 cm H2O. Which assessment finding necessitates immediate intervention by the nurse?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A low-pressure alarm may indicate a disconnection or leak in the system, which needs immediate intervention. Bilateral crackles in the lung bases may indicate fluid overload but do not require immediate intervention in this case. An oxygen saturation of 91% is concerning but not as urgent as a potential equipment issue. A respiratory rate of 18 breaths/minute is higher than the set rate but may not necessitate immediate intervention unless accompanied by other distress symptoms.

2. A male client with acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) and Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia has a CD4+ T cell count of 200 cells/microliter. The client asks the nurse why he keeps getting these massive infections. Which pathophysiologic mechanism should the nurse describe in response to the client's question?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: With a CD4+ T cell count of 200 cells/microliter, the client's immune system is severely compromised, leading to opportunistic infections.

3. A postoperative client reports incisional pain. The client has two prescriptions for PRN analgesia that accompanied the client from the post-anesthesia unit. Before selecting which medication to administer, which action should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should implement before selecting which medication to administer to a postoperative client who reports incisional pain is to compare the client's pain scale rating with the prescribed dosing. This ensures that the client receives the appropriate medication based on their pain level. Documenting the client's report of pain in the electronic medical record (Choice A) is important but should come after ensuring the right medication is given. Determining which prescription will have the quickest onset of action (Choice B) may not be the most relevant factor to consider when choosing the appropriate medication. Asking the client to choose the medication needed for the pain (Choice D) may not be appropriate as the nurse should rely on the pain scale rating and prescribed dosing to make a clinical decision.

4. What is the most common clinical manifestation of coarctation of the aorta?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Upper extremity hypertension. Coarctation of the aorta leads to increased blood pressure in the upper extremities. The pressure in the arms is typically 20 mm Hg higher than in the legs. Choice A, clubbing of the digits, is not a common clinical manifestation of coarctation of the aorta. Choice C, pedal edema, and portal congestion are more suggestive of conditions like heart failure rather than coarctation of the aorta. Choice D, loud systolic ejection murmur, can be heard in conditions like aortic stenosis, but it is not the most common clinical manifestation of coarctation of the aorta.

5. What is a causative factor of Hirschsprung disease?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: The absence of parasympathetic ganglion cells in a portion of the colon is a causative factor of Hirschsprung disease. This absence leads to the inability of the affected segment of the colon to relax, causing a functional obstruction. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Frequent evacuation of solids, liquid, and gases, excessive peristaltic movement, and one portion of the bowel telescoping into another are not causative factors of Hirschsprung disease.

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