the settings on a clients synchronized intermediate mandatory ventilation simv are respiratory rate 12 breathsminute tidal volume at 600 ml fio2 35 an
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Medical Surgical Assignment Exam HESI Quizlet

1. The settings on a client's synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation (SIMV) are respiratory rate 12 breaths/minute, tidal volume at 600 mL, FiO2 35%, and positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) 5 cm H2O. Which assessment finding necessitates immediate intervention by the nurse?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A low-pressure alarm may indicate a disconnection or leak in the system, which needs immediate intervention. Bilateral crackles in the lung bases may indicate fluid overload but do not require immediate intervention in this case. An oxygen saturation of 91% is concerning but not as urgent as a potential equipment issue. A respiratory rate of 18 breaths/minute is higher than the set rate but may not necessitate immediate intervention unless accompanied by other distress symptoms.

2. A male client tells the nurse that he is experiencing burning on urination, and assessment reveals that he had sexual intercourse four days ago with a woman he casually met. Which action should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the most appropriate action for the nurse to take is to obtain a specimen of urethral drainage for culture. This procedure can help diagnose the cause of burning on urination, which could be indicative of a sexually transmitted infection. Option A, observing for a chancroid-like lesion, may not be the most immediate or relevant action in this case. Option C, assessing for perineal itching, erythema, and excoriation, is important but obtaining a culture specimen would provide more specific diagnostic information. Option D, identifying all sexual partners, is relevant for contact tracing but obtaining a culture specimen is the priority to determine the current infection status.

3. When selecting patient problems for the 4-year-old child with nephrosis, what should be a priority for the nurse?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Skin impairment. Nephrosis is characterized by gross edema, making skin care a priority. Skin impairment can result from the edema and needs close monitoring and management. While nutritional deficit and injury are important considerations in patient care, they are not the priority when dealing with a child with nephrosis. Impaired body image is not typically a priority in the immediate care of a young child with nephrosis.

4. Parents of a 5-year-old child diagnosed with cognitive impairment have come to the nurse to discuss different approaches to the ongoing care of their child. The nurse should suggest focusing on what activity?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Performing self-care activities. For a 5-year-old child diagnosed with cognitive impairment, it is crucial to focus on teaching them basic self-care skills. This includes activities like dressing themselves, feeding, and personal hygiene. These skills are fundamental for their daily living and independence. Choices A, B, and D are not appropriate for a young child with cognitive impairment. Acquiring job skills is not developmentally suitable at this age, making decisions may be challenging due to cognitive limitations, and reading and doing simple math may be too advanced for their current cognitive abilities.

5. The client with osteoporosis is being taught about dietary modifications by the nurse. Which food should the nurse recommend to increase calcium intake?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Broccoli is the correct answer as it is a good source of calcium, which is essential for clients with osteoporosis. Broccoli is a green leafy vegetable that provides a significant amount of calcium. Chicken breast, white bread, and apple do not contain as much calcium as broccoli and therefore are not the best choices to recommend for increasing calcium intake in clients with osteoporosis.

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