the settings on a clients synchronized intermediate mandatory ventilation simv are respiratory rate 12 breathsminute tidal volume at 600 ml fio2 35 an
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Medical Surgical Assignment Exam HESI Quizlet

1. The settings on a client's synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation (SIMV) are respiratory rate 12 breaths/minute, tidal volume at 600 mL, FiO2 35%, and positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) 5 cm H2O. Which assessment finding necessitates immediate intervention by the nurse?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A low-pressure alarm may indicate a disconnection or leak in the system, which needs immediate intervention. Bilateral crackles in the lung bases may indicate fluid overload but do not require immediate intervention in this case. An oxygen saturation of 91% is concerning but not as urgent as a potential equipment issue. A respiratory rate of 18 breaths/minute is higher than the set rate but may not necessitate immediate intervention unless accompanied by other distress symptoms.

2. The nurse reports that a client is at risk for a brain attack (stroke) based on which assessment finding?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Carotid bruit. A carotid bruit is a significant risk factor for stroke as it indicates turbulent blood flow due to narrowing of the carotid artery. Nuchal rigidity is associated with meningitis, jugular vein distention can be a sign of heart failure, and palpable cervical lymph nodes may indicate infection, but they are not directly linked to stroke risk.

3. While performing a skin assessment on an older adult, the nurse notices a number of irregular round brownish-colored lesions on the client’s hands, arms, and face. On palpation, they are flat and slightly rough to the touch. Based on this assessment finding, which action should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Referral for a skin biopsy is necessary to rule out potential malignancy of irregular skin lesions. Applying a topical antibiotic ointment (Choice A) is not indicated for irregular pigmented lesions. Monitoring the lesions for changes (Choice B) may delay appropriate intervention if malignancy is present. Advising the client to use sunscreen (Choice C) is important for sun protection but is not the priority when irregular lesions are present.

4. What are early signs of varicella disease?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct early sign of varicella disease is general malaise. During the prodromal period, patients may experience low-grade fever, malaise, and anorexia. Increased appetite and crusty sores are not typically early signs of varicella. The appearance of lesions occurs later in the course of the disease.

5. A woman with chronic osteoarthritis is complaining of knee pain. Which pathophysiological process is contributing to her pain?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. In osteoarthritis, the breakdown of cartilage in the joints leads to chondrocyte injury, which results in the destruction of joint cartilage and the production of osteophytes. This process causes joint inflammation and pain. Choice A is incorrect because osteoarthritis primarily involves the articular cartilage rather than the synovial membrane. Choice B is incorrect as it describes the degeneration of cartilage but does not explain the specific pathophysiological process contributing to pain in osteoarthritis. Choice D is incorrect as the formation of uric acid crystals is characteristic of gout, not osteoarthritis.

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