the settings on a clients synchronized intermediate mandatory ventilation simv are respiratory rate 12 breathsminute tidal volume at 600 ml fio2 35 an
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Medical Surgical Assignment Exam HESI Quizlet

1. The settings on a client's synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation (SIMV) are respiratory rate 12 breaths/minute, tidal volume at 600 mL, FiO2 35%, and positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) 5 cm H2O. Which assessment finding necessitates immediate intervention by the nurse?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A low-pressure alarm may indicate a disconnection or leak in the system, which needs immediate intervention. Bilateral crackles in the lung bases may indicate fluid overload but do not require immediate intervention in this case. An oxygen saturation of 91% is concerning but not as urgent as a potential equipment issue. A respiratory rate of 18 breaths/minute is higher than the set rate but may not necessitate immediate intervention unless accompanied by other distress symptoms.

2. During a paracentesis, two liters of fluid are removed from the abdomen of a client with ascites. A drainage bag is placed, and 50 ml of straw-colored fluid drains within the first hour. What action should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Continuing to monitor the fluid output is the appropriate action in this situation. Monitoring the fluid output helps the nurse assess the client's ongoing response to the procedure and detect any sudden changes, such as increased or decreased drainage rate, which could indicate complications. Palpating for abdominal distention, sending fluid to the lab for analysis, or clamping the drainage tube are not necessary actions at this point, as the priority is to monitor the client's condition post-procedure.

3. What is a priority action for the nurse when caring for a client with suspected meningitis?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering intravenous antibiotics is the priority when caring for a client with suspected meningitis. The prompt administration of antibiotics is crucial to treat bacterial meningitis and prevent potential complications. Isolating the client in a private room may be necessary to prevent the spread of infection, but antibiotic administration takes precedence. Obtaining a throat culture and performing a chest x-ray are important diagnostic measures, but they do not address the immediate need for antibiotic therapy in suspected bacterial meningitis.

4. In the change of shift report, the nurse is told that a client has a stage 2 pressure ulcer. Which ulcer appearance is most likely to be observed?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed.' Stage 2 pressure ulcers involve partial-thickness skin loss and typically appear as shallow open ulcers with a red-pink wound bed. Choice B describes a stage 1 ulcer, where the skin is intact but shows non-blanchable redness. Choice C describes a stage 3 ulcer, with full-thickness tissue loss exposing fat. Choice D is characteristic of a stage 4 ulcer, where there is full-thickness tissue loss exposing bone, tendon, or muscle. Therefore, option A best fits the description of a stage 2 pressure ulcer.

5. The nurse is caring for a client with myasthenia gravis. Which symptom is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with myasthenia gravis, difficulty swallowing is the most crucial symptom to report to the healthcare provider. This is because it can lead to aspiration, a severe complication in these clients. Diplopia (double vision) and weakness in the legs are common symptoms of myasthenia gravis but are not as immediately dangerous as difficulty swallowing. Fatigue is also a common symptom in myasthenia gravis but does not pose the same risk of aspiration as difficulty swallowing.

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