Nursing Elites

1. The settings on a client's synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation (SIMV) are respiratory rate 12 breaths/minute, tidal volume at 600 mL, FiO2 35%, and positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) 5 cm H2O. Which assessment finding necessitates immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Bilateral crackles in the lung bases.
• B. Low-pressure indicator alarm.
• C. Oxygen saturation of 91%.
• D. Respiratory rate of 18 breaths/minute.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A low-pressure alarm may indicate a disconnection or leak in the system, which needs immediate intervention. Bilateral crackles in the lung bases may indicate fluid overload but do not require immediate intervention in this case. An oxygen saturation of 91% is concerning but not as urgent as a potential equipment issue. A respiratory rate of 18 breaths/minute is higher than the set rate but may not necessitate immediate intervention unless accompanied by other distress symptoms.

2. In planning nursing care for a bedfast client, which factor is most likely to contribute to the development of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in an immobile client?

• A. Atherosclerotic plaque formation.
• B. Stasis of blood flow.
• C. Endothelial damage.
• D. Atherosclerotic vessel changes.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Stasis of blood flow. Stasis of blood flow in immobile clients increases the risk of DVT, as lack of movement can cause blood to pool and clot. Atherosclerotic plaque formation (choice A) and atherosclerotic vessel changes (choice D) are more related to arterial diseases rather than DVT. Endothelial damage (choice C) can contribute to the development of DVT, but in an immobile client, stasis of blood flow is the most significant factor.

3. A client with chronic heart failure is being discharged with a new prescription for furosemide. Which instruction should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?

• A. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
• B. Restrict your fluid intake to 1 liter per day.
• C. Avoid salt substitutes containing potassium.
• D. Weigh yourself once a week.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to increase their intake of potassium-rich foods. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss due to increased urinary excretion. Potassium-rich foods can help prevent hypokalemia, a potential side effect of furosemide. Restricting fluid intake (choice B) may not be suitable for all patients with heart failure, and a general restriction of 1 liter per day is not typically recommended. Avoiding salt substitutes containing potassium (choice C) is not a priority teaching point in this scenario. Weighing oneself once a week (choice D) is important for monitoring fluid status, but increasing potassium-rich foods is more directly related to the potential side effects of furosemide.

4. What should be included in the medical management of sickle cell crisis?

• A. Information for the parents including home care
• B. Provisions for adequate hydration and pain management
• C. Pain management and administration of iron supplements
• D. Adequate oxygenation and factor VIII

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Provisions for adequate hydration and pain management. In managing a sickle cell crisis, it is essential to provide adequate hydration to prevent further sickling of red blood cells and ensure proper pain management to alleviate the severe pain associated with the crisis. While information for parents and home care may be important aspects of overall care, they are not specific to the immediate medical management of a sickle cell crisis. Administration of iron supplements is not recommended during a sickle cell crisis as it can potentially worsen the condition by promoting the production of more sickled red blood cells. Adequate oxygenation is crucial in sickle cell disease, but factor VIII is not typically part of the management of a sickle cell crisis.

5. The nurse is completing the preoperative assessment of a client who is scheduled for a laparoscopic cholecystectomy under general anesthesia. Which finding warrants notification of the HCP prior to proceeding with the scheduled procedure?

• A. Light yellow coloring of the client's skin and eyes.
• B. The client's blood pressure reading of 184/88 mm Hg.
• C. The client vomits 20 ml of clear yellowish fluid.
• D. The IV insertion site is red, swollen, and leaking IV fluid.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A blood pressure reading of 184/88 mm Hg indicates hypertension, which can increase the risks associated with surgery. The healthcare provider should be notified to manage the blood pressure before proceeding with the scheduled procedure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect: A, light yellow coloring of the client's skin and eyes may indicate jaundice, but it is not an immediate concern for the scheduled procedure; C, vomiting clear yellowish fluid may suggest bile reflux, but it does not pose an immediate risk to the procedure; D, red, swollen, and leaking IV insertion site indicates a local complication that requires intervention but does not have a direct impact on proceeding with the scheduled surgery.

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