Nursing Elites

1. The settings on a client's synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation (SIMV) are respiratory rate 12 breaths/minute, tidal volume at 600 mL, FiO2 35%, and positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) 5 cm H2O. Which assessment finding necessitates immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Bilateral crackles in the lung bases.
• B. Low-pressure indicator alarm.
• C. Oxygen saturation of 91%.
• D. Respiratory rate of 18 breaths/minute.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A low-pressure alarm may indicate a disconnection or leak in the system, which needs immediate intervention. Bilateral crackles in the lung bases may indicate fluid overload but do not require immediate intervention in this case. An oxygen saturation of 91% is concerning but not as urgent as a potential equipment issue. A respiratory rate of 18 breaths/minute is higher than the set rate but may not necessitate immediate intervention unless accompanied by other distress symptoms.

2. Following surgical repair of the bladder, a female client is being discharged from the hospital to home with an indwelling urinary catheter. Which instruction is most important for the nurse to provide to this client?

• A. Avoid coiling the tubing and keep it free of kinks.
• B. Cleanse the perineal area with soap and water twice daily.
• C. Keep the drainage bag lower than the level of the bladder.
• D. Drink 1,000 ml of fluids daily to irrigate the catheter.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most crucial instruction for a client with an indwelling urinary catheter post-bladder surgery is to keep the drainage bag positioned lower than the level of the bladder. This positioning prevents backflow of urine into the bladder, reducing the risk of infection. Choice A, avoiding coiling the tubing and keeping it free of kinks, is important to maintain proper flow but not as critical as ensuring the drainage bag is lower than the bladder. Choice B, cleansing the perineal area, is essential for overall hygiene but not directly related to catheter care instructions. Choice D, drinking fluids to irrigate the catheter, is not recommended as it may increase the risk of infection and should be guided by healthcare providers based on specific needs.

3. A client with a history of seizures is prescribed phenytoin. Which side effect should the nurse instruct the client to report?

• A. Drowsiness
• B. Gingival hyperplasia
• C. Weight gain
• D. Blurred vision

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Gingival hyperplasia. Phenytoin is known to cause gingival hyperplasia, which is an overgrowth of gum tissue. This side effect is important to report to the healthcare provider because it can lead to oral health problems. Choice A, drowsiness, is a common side effect of many antiepileptic drugs but is not specific to phenytoin. Choice C, weight gain, is not a typical side effect of phenytoin. Choice D, blurred vision, is not a common side effect of phenytoin; it is more commonly associated with other medications.

4. An overweight, young adult male who was recently diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus is admitted for a hernia repair. He tells the nurse that he is feeling very weak and jittery. Which actions should the nurse implement? (Select all that apply)

• A. Check his fingerstick glucose
• B. Assess his skin temperature and moisture
• C. Measure his pulse and BP
• D. All of the Above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the patient is a young adult male with type 2 diabetes mellitus admitted for a hernia repair who is experiencing weakness and jitteriness. Checking his fingerstick glucose is crucial to assess his blood sugar levels, which can directly impact his symptoms. Assessing his skin temperature and moisture is important to evaluate his peripheral circulation and hydration status. Measuring his pulse and blood pressure helps in gauging his cardiovascular status. Therefore, all the actions mentioned in choices A, B, and C are appropriate for the nurse to implement in this situation to identify the underlying cause of the patient's symptoms. Choice D, 'All of the Above,' is the correct answer because all these actions are necessary for a comprehensive assessment of the patient's condition. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect individually as they each address different aspects of the patient's condition, and a holistic approach is needed to provide optimal care in this situation.

5. A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is being treated with warfarin. Which dietary instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Avoid foods high in vitamin C
• B. Increase intake of green leafy vegetables
• C. Limit intake of foods high in vitamin K
• D. Avoid dairy products

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Limit intake of foods high in vitamin K'. Vitamin K can interfere with the effectiveness of warfarin, an anticoagulant medication commonly used to treat conditions like deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Patients on warfarin should maintain a consistent intake of vitamin K-rich foods and be monitored closely. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because avoiding foods high in vitamin C, increasing intake of green leafy vegetables, and avoiding dairy products are not essential dietary instructions for a client on warfarin therapy for DVT.

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