which of the following is a priority assessment for a client receiving intravenous vancomycin
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Medical Surgical Assignment Exam HESI

1. Which of the following is a priority assessment for a client receiving intravenous vancomycin?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Hearing acuity. Vancomycin is known to cause ototoxicity, which can result in hearing loss. Monitoring the client's hearing acuity is crucial to detect any early signs of ototoxicity. Assessing respiratory rate, blood pressure, and urine output are important assessments in general patient care but are not the priority when specifically monitoring for vancomycin-induced ototoxicity.

2. The mother of a child with acute laryngotracheobronchitis (LTB) asks why her child must be kept NPO. Which response would be the most correct?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because rapid respirations predispose to aspiration in a child with acute laryngotracheobronchitis. Choice A is incorrect because epinephrine does not directly relate to the need for NPO status. Choice B is incorrect as hydration with IV fluids is not the primary reason for keeping the child NPO. Choice C is incorrect as the child being hungry is not the main concern when keeping a child NPO in this situation.

3. When caring for a 7-week-old infant with hypothyroidism, the nurse explains that the prevention of what complication is dependent on the administration of oral thyroid replacement therapy and is critical for the child?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Cognitive impairment. The treatment of choice for congenital and acquired hypothyroidism is oral thyroid hormone replacement therapy. Prompt treatment is especially critical in the infant with congenital hypothyroidism to avoid permanent cognitive impairment. Excessive growth (Choice A) is not a common complication of hypothyroidism in infants. Damage to the nervous system (Choice C) and damage to the urinary system (Choice D) are not typically associated with untreated hypothyroidism in infants.

4. A client is receiving a continuous infusion of normal saline at 125 ml/hour post abdominal surgery. The client is drowsy and complaining of constant abdominal pain and a headache. Urine output is 800 ml over the past 24h with a central venous pressure of 15 mmHg. The nurse notes respiratory crackle and bounding central pulses. Vital signs: temperature 101.2°F, Heart rate 96 beats/min, Respirations 24 breaths/min, and Blood pressure 160/90 mmHg. Which interventions should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to decrease IV fluids to the keep vein open (KVO) rate. The client is showing signs of fluid volume excess, such as drowsiness, headache, elevated CVP, crackles, bounding pulses, and increased blood pressure. Decreasing the IV fluids will help prevent further fluid overload. Reviewing the last administration of IV pain medication (Choice A) may be necessary but addressing the fluid balance issue is the priority. Administering a PRN dose of acetaminophen (Choice B) may help with the headache but does not address the underlying fluid overload. Calculating total intake and output (Choice D) is important but does not directly address the immediate issue of fluid overload and its associated symptoms.

5. A client with asthma is prescribed a metered-dose inhaler (MDI) with albuterol. Which instruction is essential for the nurse to provide?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to 'Shake the inhaler well before use.' This instruction is crucial as shaking the inhaler ensures the proper mixing of the medication, which is essential for its effective delivery. Option A is incorrect because using the inhaler only before bedtime may not provide adequate relief during the day. Option C is incorrect as exhaling fully is a good practice but not the most essential instruction. Option D is incorrect as taking two puffs every hour may exceed the recommended dosage and lead to adverse effects.

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