Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is a priority assessment for a client receiving intravenous vancomycin?

• A. Respiratory rate
• B. Blood pressure
• C. Urine output
• D. Hearing acuity

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Hearing acuity. Vancomycin is known to cause ototoxicity, which can result in hearing loss. Monitoring the client's hearing acuity is crucial to detect any early signs of ototoxicity. Assessing respiratory rate, blood pressure, and urine output are important assessments in general patient care but are not the priority when specifically monitoring for vancomycin-induced ototoxicity.

2. How often should the casts be changed for a newborn with talipes who is wearing casts?

• A. Daily
• B. Weekly
• C. Biweekly
• D. Monthly

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Weekly. Treatment of talipes involves manipulation and applying short leg casts. The casts need to be changed weekly to allow for further manipulation and to accommodate the rapid growth of the infant. Changing the casts daily (choice A) would be too frequent and may not provide enough time for the correction to take place. Changing the casts biweekly (choice C) or monthly (choice D) would not provide adequate support for the ongoing correction process required for talipes.

3. A child has developed a diaper rash, and the parents are using zinc oxide to treat it. What does the nurse suggest to aid in the removal of the zinc oxide?

• A. Mild soap and water
• B. A cotton ball
• C. Mineral oil
• D. Alcohol swabs

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To completely remove ointment, especially zinc oxide, mineral oil should be used. Mineral oil helps in gently breaking down and lifting the ointment without causing irritation. Mild soap and water (Choice A) may not be effective in completely removing zinc oxide. A cotton ball (Choice B) may not provide the necessary lubrication to aid in the removal process. Alcohol swabs (Choice D) can be harsh on the skin and are not recommended for this purpose.

4. A client with hyperkalemia is being treated in the emergency department. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer?

• A. Potassium chloride
• B. Calcium gluconate
• C. Magnesium sulfate
• D. Sodium bicarbonate

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Calcium gluconate. In hyperkalemia, where potassium levels are elevated, calcium gluconate is administered to stabilize the myocardial cell membrane and protect the heart from potential arrhythmias. Potassium chloride (choice A) would worsen the condition by further increasing potassium levels. Magnesium sulfate (choice C) is not the primary treatment for hyperkalemia. Sodium bicarbonate (choice D) is used in metabolic acidosis, not specifically for hyperkalemia.

5. Which dietary modification is most appropriate for a client with nephrotic syndrome?

• A. High protein, low sodium
• B. Low protein, high sodium
• C. High protein, high potassium
• D. Low protein, low sodium

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most appropriate dietary modification for a client with nephrotic syndrome is a low protein, low sodium diet. This diet helps reduce the workload on the kidneys and manage edema, which are common issues in nephrotic syndrome. Choice A, high protein, low sodium, is not recommended because excessive protein intake can further strain the kidneys. Choice B, low protein, high sodium, is inappropriate as high sodium can worsen fluid retention and hypertension. Choice C, high protein, high potassium, is not ideal as high potassium levels can be problematic for individuals with kidney issues.

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