Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is a priority assessment for a client receiving intravenous vancomycin?

• A. Respiratory rate
• B. Blood pressure
• C. Urine output
• D. Hearing acuity

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Hearing acuity. Vancomycin is known to cause ototoxicity, which can result in hearing loss. Monitoring the client's hearing acuity is crucial to detect any early signs of ototoxicity. Assessing respiratory rate, blood pressure, and urine output are important assessments in general patient care but are not the priority when specifically monitoring for vancomycin-induced ototoxicity.

2. A postoperative client reports incisional pain. The client has two prescriptions for PRN analgesia that accompanied the client from the post-anesthesia unit. Before selecting which medication to administer, which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Document the client's report of pain in the electronic medical record.
• B. Determine which prescription will have the quickest onset of action.
• C. Compare the client's pain scale rating with the prescribed dosing.
• D. Ask the client to choose which medication is needed for the pain.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should implement before selecting which medication to administer to a postoperative client who reports incisional pain is to compare the client's pain scale rating with the prescribed dosing. This ensures that the client receives the appropriate medication based on their pain level. Documenting the client's report of pain in the electronic medical record (Choice A) is important but should come after ensuring the right medication is given. Determining which prescription will have the quickest onset of action (Choice B) may not be the most relevant factor to consider when choosing the appropriate medication. Asking the client to choose the medication needed for the pain (Choice D) may not be appropriate as the nurse should rely on the pain scale rating and prescribed dosing to make a clinical decision.

3. The nurse is reviewing blood pressure readings for a group of clients on a medical unit. Which client is at the highest risk for complications related to hypertension?

• A. Post-menopausal Caucasian female who overeats and is 20% above her ideal body weight.
• B. Young adult Hispanic female who has hemoglobin at 11 g/dl (110 g/L) and drinks beer daily.
• C. Older adult who consumes a diet of smoked, cured, and pickled foods.
• D. Middle-aged African-American male who has a serum creatinine level of 2.9 mg/dL (256.4 micromol/L).

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. An elevated serum creatinine level indicates kidney damage, which significantly increases the risk of complications from hypertension. High blood pressure can damage the kidneys over time, leading to impaired kidney function. Choices A, B, and C do not directly correlate with increased risk of complications related to hypertension. Choice A focuses on obesity and overeating, Choice B on anemia and alcohol consumption, and Choice C on a diet high in sodium and nitrates, none of which are as directly related to hypertension complications as kidney damage.

4. What is the most common clinical manifestation of coarctation of the aorta?

• A. Clubbing of the digits
• B. Upper extremity hypertension
• C. Pedal edema and portal congestion
• D. Loud systolic ejection murmur

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Upper extremity hypertension. Coarctation of the aorta leads to increased blood pressure in the upper extremities. The pressure in the arms is typically 20 mm Hg higher than in the legs. Choice A, clubbing of the digits, is not a common clinical manifestation of coarctation of the aorta. Choice C, pedal edema, and portal congestion are more suggestive of conditions like heart failure rather than coarctation of the aorta. Choice D, loud systolic ejection murmur, can be heard in conditions like aortic stenosis, but it is not the most common clinical manifestation of coarctation of the aorta.

5. A male client with Herpes Zoster (shingles) on his thorax tells the nurse that he is having difficulty sleeping. What is the etiology of this problem?

• A. Pain
• B. Nocturia
• C. Dyspnea
• D. Frequent cough

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pain. The pain caused by Herpes Zoster (shingles) can disrupt sleep patterns. It is a common symptom of shingles and can lead to difficulty falling asleep or staying asleep. Nocturia (B), dyspnea (C), and frequent cough (D) are not typically associated with shingles and would not directly cause difficulty sleeping in this scenario.

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