which of the following is a priority assessment for a client receiving intravenous vancomycin which of the following is a priority assessment for a client receiving intravenous vancomycin
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HESI LPN

Medical Surgical Assignment Exam HESI

1. Which of the following is a priority assessment for a client receiving intravenous vancomycin?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Hearing acuity. Vancomycin is known to cause ototoxicity, which can result in hearing loss. Monitoring the client's hearing acuity is crucial to detect any early signs of ototoxicity. Assessing respiratory rate, blood pressure, and urine output are important assessments in general patient care but are not the priority when specifically monitoring for vancomycin-induced ototoxicity.

2. A healthcare professional is assessing an adult client who has been immobile for the past 3 weeks. The healthcare professional should identify that which of the following findings requires further intervention?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Erythema on pressure points indicates potential skin breakdown due to prolonged immobility. It requires immediate intervention to prevent pressure ulcers. Lower-extremity pulse strength of 2+ is a normal finding, indicating adequate peripheral perfusion. Fluid intake of 3,000 mL per day is within the normal range and promotes hydration. A bowel movement every other day is a reasonable frequency for some individuals and does not necessarily indicate a need for immediate intervention in this scenario.

3. A 41-week gestation primigravida woman is admitted to labor and delivery for induction of labor. What finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider before initiating the infusion of oxytocin?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Oligohydramnios (low amniotic fluid) is a significant concern before starting oxytocin and should be reported to ensure safe labor induction. This finding can indicate potential fetal compromise and requires immediate evaluation. Fetal heart tones located in a specific quadrant, regular contractions, and cervical dilation are common assessments during labor but are not as critical as oligohydramnios in this scenario.

4. A nurse is preparing to discharge a client who has end-stage heart failure. The client's partner tells the nurse she can no longer handle caring for the client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should contact the case manager to discuss discharge options and support the client's partner. This action is appropriate as it involves seeking professional guidance and support for the client's partner who is struggling to care for the client. Option A is not the best choice as it solely focuses on involving another family member without addressing the partner's concerns directly. Option B is premature as recommending long-term care should be a well-considered decision involving multiple healthcare professionals. Option D delays the inevitable without providing a solution to the partner's current challenges.

5. Jill bears the genetic code for Von Willebrand disease, but she has never developed the illness herself. Jill would be considered:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Jill is a carrier of the recessive gene for Von Willebrand disease. Being a carrier means that she has one copy of the gene but does not show symptoms of the disease. Carriers can pass on the gene to their offspring. Choice B is incorrect as being a carrier does not mean she is susceptible to developing the disease after adolescence. Choice C is incorrect as 'acceptor' is not a term used in genetics in this context. Choice D is incorrect as susceptibility to the disease is not related to late adulthood in carriers of a recessive gene.

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