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HESI CAT
1. The school nurse is screening students for spinal abnormalities and instructs each student to stand up and then touch their toes. Which finding indicates that a student should be referred for scoliosis evaluation?
- A. Inability to touch their toes
- B. Asymmetry of the shoulders when standing upright
- C. Audible crepitus when bending
- D. An exaggerated upper thoracic convex curvature
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Asymmetry of the shoulders when standing upright is a common indicator of scoliosis. This finding suggests a possible spinal abnormality and should prompt further evaluation. Choices A, C, and D are not specific indicators of scoliosis. Inability to touch their toes may indicate flexibility issues or tightness in the hamstrings. Audible crepitus when bending may suggest joint degeneration or inflammation. An exaggerated upper thoracic convex curvature could indicate poor posture or other spinal abnormalities but is not directly indicative of scoliosis.
2. An IV antibiotic is prescribed for a client with a postoperative infection. The medication is to be administered in 4 divided doses. What schedule is best for administering this prescription?
- A. 1000, 1600, 2200, 0400
- B. Give in equally divided doses during waking hours
- C. Administer with meals and a bedtime snack
- D. 0800, 1200, 1600, 2000
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The best schedule for administering the IV antibiotic in 4 divided doses is 0800, 1200, 1600, and 2000. This timing allows for equal spacing between doses, ensuring consistent therapeutic levels of the medication in the client's system. Choice A provides doses too close together, increasing the risk of medication errors and potential toxicity. Choice B's suggestion of giving doses during waking hours is vague and lacks specific timing, which may result in irregular dosing intervals. Choice C, administering with meals and a bedtime snack, is unrelated to the timing of the antibiotic doses and does not optimize the drug's effectiveness.
3. When lactulose (Cephulac) 30 ml QID is prescribed for a male client with advanced cirrhosis, and he complains that it causes diarrhea, what action should the nurse take in response to the client’s statement?
- A. Explain that diarrhea is expected, but the drug reduces ammonia levels
- B. Document that the client is non-compliant with his treatment plan
- C. Tell the client to be concerned about more significant side effects of this drug
- D. Obtain a prescription for loperamide (Imodium) 4mg PO PRN diarrhea
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Diarrhea is an expected side effect of lactulose when used to reduce ammonia levels in cirrhosis. It helps in decreasing the absorption of ammonia in the colon, thereby reducing its levels in the blood. Option B is incorrect because it is essential for the nurse to educate the client about the expected side effects of the medication rather than assuming non-compliance. Option C is incorrect as it instills unnecessary fear in the client by suggesting more significant side effects without addressing the current concern. Option D is incorrect as loperamide should not be given automatically for diarrhea caused by lactulose, as the diarrhea is a therapeutic effect of the medication in this context.
4. The healthcare provider prescribes a fluid challenge of 0.9% sodium chloride 1,000 ml to be infused over 4 hours. The IV administration set delivers 10gtt/ml. How many gtt/minute should the nurse regulate the infusion? (Enter a numeric value only. If rounding is required, round to the nearest whole number.)
- A. 42
- B.
- C.
- D.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the rate: (1000 ml / 4 hours) = 250 ml/hour; (250 ml/hour) / (60 minutes/hour) = 4.17 ml/minute; (4.17 ml/minute) * (10 gtt/ml) = 41.7 gtt/minute, rounded to 42 gtt/minute. Therefore, the nurse should regulate the infusion at 42 gtt/minute to deliver the prescribed fluid challenge accurately. The other choices are incorrect as they do not reflect the correct calculation based on the given information.
5. To prevent aspiration in a client on mechanical ventilation receiving continuous enteral feedings through a nasogastric tube, which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?
- A. Verify the feeding tube position with a daily chest x-ray
- B. Maintain head of bed elevated while enteral feeding is infusing
- C. Check feeding tube placement with air bolus prior to use
- D. Aspirate stomach contents every 4 hours to assess residuals
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most important intervention to prevent aspiration in a client receiving continuous enteral feedings through a nasogastric tube while on mechanical ventilation is to maintain the head of the bed elevated while the feeding is infusing. This position helps reduce the risk of regurgitation and aspiration. Options A, C, and D are not as crucial as maintaining proper positioning to prevent aspiration. Verifying tube position with a daily chest x-ray is important but not the most crucial. Checking tube placement with an air bolus and aspirating stomach contents are important procedures but do not directly address the prevention of aspiration during enteral feedings.
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