which client should the nurse assess frequently because of the risk for overflow incontinence
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

CAT Exam Practice Test

1. Which client should the nurse assess frequently because of the risk for overflow incontinence?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Bedfast clients with increased serum BUN and creatinine levels are at high risk for overflow incontinence. This occurs due to decreased bladder function and reduced ability to sense bladder fullness, leading to the bladder overfilling and leaking urine. Choice B describes symptoms related to possible urinary tract infections or renal issues, but these do not directly indicate overflow incontinence. Choice C, a history of frequent urinary tract infections, may suggest other urinary issues but not specifically overflow incontinence. Choice D, a confused client who forgets to go to the bathroom, is more indicative of functional incontinence rather than overflow incontinence.

2. The nurse is assessing a first-day postpartum client. Which finding is most indicative of a postpartum infection?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A foul-smelling lochia is indicative of a postpartum infection, such as endometritis. Foul-smelling lochia suggests the presence of infection due to the breakdown of tissue by bacteria, leading to the malodor. An oral temperature elevation and an elevated white blood cell count are nonspecific and can be present in various conditions other than postpartum infections, making them less indicative. A blood pressure within normal limits is not typically associated with postpartum infections.

3. Which instruction is most important for the client who receives a new prescription for risedronate sodium to treat osteoporosis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most important instruction for a client receiving risedronate sodium to treat osteoporosis is to remain upright for 30 minutes after taking the medication. Risedronate sodium can cause esophageal irritation, and staying upright helps prevent this side effect. While increasing vitamin D intake, starting a low-impact exercise routine, and taking the medication with a full glass of water are all beneficial for managing osteoporosis, the immediate need is to prevent esophageal irritation caused by risedronate sodium.

4. In developing a plan of care for a client admitted to a mental health unit after attempting suicide by taking a handful of medications, which goal has the highest priority?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Signs a no-self-harm contract. Ensuring the client’s immediate safety by having them commit to not engaging in self-harm is the highest priority after a suicide attempt. This measure aims to prevent further harm to the client. While sleep, group therapy, and self-image are important aspects of care, they are secondary to ensuring the client's safety in the immediate aftermath of a suicide attempt. Prioritizing the establishment of a no-self-harm contract creates a foundation for addressing other therapeutic goals in the client's care plan.

5. A client who is diagnosed with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) is having difficulty swallowing and articulating words. Which intervention is most important to include in this client’s plan of care?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with ALS experiencing difficulty swallowing and articulating words is to sit upright and flex the chin forward while swallowing. This position helps manage dysphagia associated with ALS by facilitating the swallowing process. Encouraging speaking slowly and articulating words (Choice A) may be helpful for speech clarity but does not address the swallowing issue. Positioning a communication board (Choice C) would not directly address the swallowing difficulty. Providing feeding utensils with large grip handles (Choice D) is not the priority intervention for managing dysphagia in ALS.

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