Nursing Elites

1. Which client should the nurse assess frequently because of the risk for overflow incontinence?

• A. A client who is bedfast, with increased serum BUN and creatinine levels
• B. A client with hematuria and decreasing hemoglobin and hematocrit levels
• C. A client who has a history of frequent urinary tract infections
• D. A client who is confused and frequently forgets to go to the bathroom

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Bedfast clients with increased serum BUN and creatinine levels are at high risk for overflow incontinence. This occurs due to decreased bladder function and reduced ability to sense bladder fullness, leading to the bladder overfilling and leaking urine. Choice B describes symptoms related to possible urinary tract infections or renal issues, but these do not directly indicate overflow incontinence. Choice C, a history of frequent urinary tract infections, may suggest other urinary issues but not specifically overflow incontinence. Choice D, a confused client who forgets to go to the bathroom, is more indicative of functional incontinence rather than overflow incontinence.

2. When caring for a laboring client whose contractions are occurring every 2-3 minutes, the nurse should document that the pump is infusing how many ml/hour? (Enter numeric value only. If rounding is required, round to the nearest whole number. Click on each chart tab for additional information. Please be sure to scroll to the bottom right corner of each tab to view all information contained in the client’s medical record.)

• A. 5
• B. 10
• C. 15
• D. 20

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct infusion rate can be calculated based on the information provided in the chart. With contractions occurring every 2-3 minutes, the recommended infusion rate is 5 ml/hr. This rate ensures proper hydration and medication delivery to support the client during labor. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the calculated rate based on the contractions frequency and the client's needs.

3. A male client with diabetes mellitus takes NPH/regular 70/30 insulin before meals and azithromycin PO daily, using medication he brought from home. When the nurse delivers his breakfast tray, the client tells the nurse that he took his insulin but forgot to take his daily dose of azithromycin an hour before breakfast as instructed. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Provide a PRN dose of an antacid to take with the azithromycin right after breakfast
• B. Offer to obtain a new breakfast tray in an hour so the client can take the azithromycin
• C. Instruct the client to eat his breakfast and take the azithromycin two hours after eating
• D. Tell the client to skip that day's dose and resume taking the azithromycin the next day

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Azithromycin should ideally be taken on an empty stomach; however, if taken after breakfast, it should not affect its efficacy. Instructing the client to eat his breakfast and take the azithromycin two hours after eating allows for proper absorption without compromising its effectiveness. Providing an antacid with azithromycin is not necessary in this case. Offering a new breakfast tray in an hour or skipping the dose is not the best course of action as it may lead to missed doses and potential effectiveness issues.

4. A 70-year-old client is admitted to the hospital after 24 hours of acute diarrhea. To determine fluid status, which initial data is most important for the nurse to obtain?

• A. Usual and current weight
• B. Color and amount of urine
• C. Number and frequency of stools
• D. Intake and output 24 hours prior to admission

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Usual and current weight. Weight changes are the most direct indicator of fluid status in a patient with acute diarrhea. Monitoring weight loss or gain can provide crucial information about fluid balance. Option B, color and amount of urine, though important for assessing renal function, is not as direct an indicator of fluid status as weight. Option C, number and frequency of stools, is relevant for assessing the severity of diarrhea but does not provide direct information on fluid status. Option D, intake and output 24 hours prior to admission, does not reflect the current fluid status and may not be accurate in a rapidly changing condition like acute diarrhea.

5. Following rectal surgery, a female client is very anxious about the pain she may experience during defecation. The nurse should collaborate with the healthcare provider to administer which type of medication?

• A. Bulk-forming agent
• B. Antianxiety agent
• C. Stool softener
• D. Stimulant cathartic

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After rectal surgery, a stool softener is the most appropriate medication to help prevent pain and straining during defecation. Stool softeners work by increasing the water content of the stool, making it easier to pass without discomfort. Bulk-forming agents (Choice A) help add mass to the stool but may not address the immediate post-operative discomfort. Antianxiety agents (Choice B) would address the anxiety but not the physical discomfort. Stimulant cathartics (Choice D) are not recommended after rectal surgery as they can cause cramping and increased bowel movements, potentially exacerbating pain.

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