Nursing Elites

1. Which client should the nurse assess frequently because of the risk for overflow incontinence?

• A. A client who is bedfast, with increased serum BUN and creatinine levels
• B. A client with hematuria and decreasing hemoglobin and hematocrit levels
• C. A client who has a history of frequent urinary tract infections
• D. A client who is confused and frequently forgets to go to the bathroom

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Bedfast clients with increased serum BUN and creatinine levels are at high risk for overflow incontinence. This occurs due to decreased bladder function and reduced ability to sense bladder fullness, leading to the bladder overfilling and leaking urine. Choice B describes symptoms related to possible urinary tract infections or renal issues, but these do not directly indicate overflow incontinence. Choice C, a history of frequent urinary tract infections, may suggest other urinary issues but not specifically overflow incontinence. Choice D, a confused client who forgets to go to the bathroom, is more indicative of functional incontinence rather than overflow incontinence.

2. When designing a plan of care for a client diagnosed with pheochromocytoma, a goal statement should be prepared that relates to which topic?

• A. Psychological counseling to address emotional well-being
• B. Medication teaching concerning adrenergic blockers
• C. Preoperative and postoperative teaching for adrenalectomy
• D. Education on dietary modifications for hypertension

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Preoperative and postoperative teaching for adrenalectomy. Pheochromocytoma often requires adrenalectomy as part of the treatment plan. Therefore, educating the client about what to expect before and after the surgery is crucial for optimal care and outcomes. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A focuses on emotional well-being rather than the specific surgical intervention needed for pheochromocytoma. Choice B is unrelated as the primary treatment for pheochromocytoma is surgical rather than medication-based. Choice D, though related to managing hypertension, does not address the surgical aspect of treating pheochromocytoma.

3. Which assessment finding is most indicative of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in a client’s right leg?

• A. Dorsiflexes the right foot and left foot on command
• B. A 3 by 5 cm ecchymosis area on the right calf
• C. Right calf is 3 cm larger in circumference than the left calf
• D. Bilateral lower extremities have 3+ pitting edema

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because a significant difference in calf circumference between the legs is a classic sign of DVT. This is due to the obstruction of blood flow in the deep veins of the leg, leading to swelling in the affected limb. Choices A, B, and D are not typical findings of DVT. Choice A describes a neurological response, choice B indicates a bruise on the right calf, and choice D describes pitting edema in both lower extremities, which are not specific signs of DVT.

4. An adult male with a 6 cm thoracic aneurysm is being prepared for surgery. The nurse reports to the healthcare provider that the client’s blood pressure is 220/112 mmHg, so an antihypertensive agent is added to the client’s IV infusion. Which finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Reports a tearing, sharp pain between his shoulder blades
• B. Blood pressure reading of 200/100 mmHg 15 minutes later
• C. Rose-colored urine draining from the urinary catheter
• D. Sinus tachycardia with frequent premature ventricular beats (PVC)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A tearing, sharp pain between the shoulder blades may indicate aortic dissection, a serious complication requiring immediate intervention. This symptom is highly concerning in a patient with a thoracic aneurysm. Choice B is not as urgent as the pain symptom described in choice A. Choice C could indicate hematuria but is not as critical as the potential aortic dissection in choice A. Choice D, sinus tachycardia with PVCs, may be related to the patient's condition but is not as indicative of an immediate life-threatening situation as the tearing, sharp pain indicative of aortic dissection.

5. The nurse is assessing a first-day postpartum client. Which finding is most indicative of a postpartum infection?

• A. Oral temperature of 100.2°F (37.9°C)
• B. Blood pressure of 122/74 mmHg
• C. Moderate amount of foul-smelling lochia
• D. White blood count of 19,000/mm³ (19x10^9/L SI units)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A foul-smelling lochia is indicative of a postpartum infection, such as endometritis. Foul-smelling lochia suggests the presence of infection due to the breakdown of tissue by bacteria, leading to the malodor. An oral temperature elevation and an elevated white blood cell count are nonspecific and can be present in various conditions other than postpartum infections, making them less indicative. A blood pressure within normal limits is not typically associated with postpartum infections.

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