which client should the nurse assess frequently because of the risk for overflow incontinence
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

CAT Exam Practice Test

1. Which client should the nurse assess frequently because of the risk for overflow incontinence?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Bedfast clients with increased serum BUN and creatinine levels are at high risk for overflow incontinence. This occurs due to decreased bladder function and reduced ability to sense bladder fullness, leading to the bladder overfilling and leaking urine. Choice B describes symptoms related to possible urinary tract infections or renal issues, but these do not directly indicate overflow incontinence. Choice C, a history of frequent urinary tract infections, may suggest other urinary issues but not specifically overflow incontinence. Choice D, a confused client who forgets to go to the bathroom, is more indicative of functional incontinence rather than overflow incontinence.

2. A client taking clopidogrel reports the onset of diarrhea. Which nursing action should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Observing the stool’s appearance should be implemented first as it helps determine the nature and possible severity of the diarrhea, which is essential in managing the side effect. Assessing skin turgor (Choice B) is not the priority in this situation. Reviewing laboratory values (Choice C) can provide additional information but is not the initial step. Auscultating bowel sounds (Choice D) is not the priority when the client is experiencing diarrhea.

3. In the Emergency Department, a female client discloses that she was raped last night. Which question is most important for the nurse to ask?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most important question for the nurse to ask in this situation is whether the client knows the person who raped her. This question is crucial for assessing additional safety concerns, providing appropriate support, and determining the need for forensic evidence collection. Choices B, C, and D are not as critical in the immediate assessment and response to a rape victim. Asking about bathing, the safety of her home, or reporting to the police may be important but are secondary to identifying the perpetrator for safety and legal reasons.

4. A male client with angina pectoris is being discharged from the hospital. What instructions should the nurse plan to include in the discharge teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to keep nitroglycerin in a light-colored container and readily available. Nitroglycerin should be protected from light to maintain its effectiveness. Option A is incorrect because physical exercise immediately before eating can trigger angina. Option B is incorrect as cold weather can exacerbate angina symptoms. Option D is incorrect as isometric exercises can increase the workload on the heart, which is not recommended for individuals with angina.

5. When administering ceftriaxone sodium intravenously to a client before surgery, which assessment finding requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Stridor is a high-pitched, noisy breathing sound that can indicate a serious condition like airway obstruction or a severe allergic reaction, necessitating immediate intervention to maintain the client's airway and prevent further complications. While headache, pruritus, and nausea are important to assess and manage, they are not as immediately life-threatening as stridor, which requires prompt attention to prevent respiratory compromise.

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