Nursing Elites

1. Which client should the nurse assess frequently because of the risk for overflow incontinence?

• A. A client who is bedfast, with increased serum BUN and creatinine levels
• B. A client with hematuria and decreasing hemoglobin and hematocrit levels
• C. A client who has a history of frequent urinary tract infections
• D. A client who is confused and frequently forgets to go to the bathroom

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Bedfast clients with increased serum BUN and creatinine levels are at high risk for overflow incontinence. This occurs due to decreased bladder function and reduced ability to sense bladder fullness, leading to the bladder overfilling and leaking urine. Choice B describes symptoms related to possible urinary tract infections or renal issues, but these do not directly indicate overflow incontinence. Choice C, a history of frequent urinary tract infections, may suggest other urinary issues but not specifically overflow incontinence. Choice D, a confused client who forgets to go to the bathroom, is more indicative of functional incontinence rather than overflow incontinence.

2. Following an open reduction and internal fixation of a compound fracture of the leg, a male client complains of “a tingly sensation” in his left foot. The nurse determines the client’s left pedal pulses are diminished. Based on these findings, what is the client’s greatest risk?

• A. Reduce pulmonary ventilation and oxygenation related to fat embolism.
• B. Neurovascular and circulation compromise related to compartment syndrome.
• C. Wound infection and delayed healing due to fractured bone protrusion.
• D. Venous stasis and thrombophlebitis related to postoperative immobility.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Compartment syndrome is a serious condition that can occur following trauma or surgery, leading to compromised neurovascular status in the affected limb. Symptoms include pain, paresthesia (tingling sensation), and diminished pulses. If left untreated, compartment syndrome can result in tissue damage and potential loss of limb function. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly address the neurovascular compromise associated with compartment syndrome.

3. Following a thyroidectomy, a client experiences tetany. The nurse should expect to administer which intravenous medication?

• A. Sodium iodide solution
• B. Levothyroxine sodium (Synthroid)
• C. Calcium gluconate
• D. Propranolol (Inderal)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Following a thyroidectomy, tetany can occur due to hypoparathyroidism, leading to low calcium levels. Therefore, the nurse should administer calcium gluconate intravenously to raise the calcium levels. Choice A, Sodium iodide solution, is incorrect as it is used for thyroid conditions, not for treating tetany. Choice B, Levothyroxine sodium (Synthroid), is incorrect as it is a thyroid hormone replacement and does not address low calcium levels. Choice D, Propranolol (Inderal), is incorrect as it is a beta-blocker used for conditions like hypertension and not indicated for tetany after thyroidectomy.

4. A young adult who is hit with a baseball bat on the temporal area of the left skull is conscious when admitted to the ED and is transferred to the Neurological Unit to be monitored for signs of closed head injury. Which assessment finding is indicative of a developing epidural hematoma?

• A. Altered consciousness within the first 24 hours after injury
• B. Confusion immediately following the injury
• C. Headache that resolves quickly
• D. Brief loss of consciousness with a lucid interval

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Epidural hematoma often presents with a brief loss of consciousness followed by a lucid interval and then a rapid decline in consciousness. Therefore, altered consciousness within the first 24 hours after the injury is indicative of a developing epidural hematoma. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because confusion immediately following the injury, headache that resolves quickly, and brief loss of consciousness with a lucid interval are not specific signs of epidural hematoma.

5. After assessing an older adult with a suspected cerebrovascular accident (CVA), the nurse documents the client's right upper arm weakness and slurred speech. When the client complains of a severe headache and nausea, and the neurological assessment remains unchanged, which action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer an oral analgesic with antiemetic
• B. Collect blood for coagulation times
• C. Send the client for a computed tomography scan of the brain
• D. Obtain a history of medication use, recent surgery, or injury

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the priority action for the nurse is to send the client for a computed tomography (CT) scan of the brain. A CT scan is crucial in assessing acute changes or bleeding that could influence treatment decisions in a suspected cerebrovascular accident (CVA). While addressing symptoms like headache and nausea is important, ruling out acute changes in the brain with a CT scan takes precedence in this situation. Collecting blood for coagulation times may be necessary but is not the initial priority. Obtaining a history of medication use, recent surgery, or injury is also important but not the first action to take when a CVA is suspected.

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