HESI LPN
HESI Practice Test Pharmacology
1. A client prescribed glipizide asked why they had to take their insulin orally. How should the practical nurse respond?
- A. Glipizide is not an oral form of insulin and can be used only when some beta cell function is present.
- B. Glipizide is an oral form of insulin and is distributed, metabolized, and excreted in the same manner as insulin.
- C. Glipizide is an oral form of insulin and has the same actions and properties as intermediate insulin.
- D. Glipizide is not an oral form of insulin, but it is effective for those who are resistant to injectable insulins.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The practical nurse should explain to the client that glipizide is not an oral form of insulin but an oral hypoglycemic agent. Glipizide works by enhancing pancreatic production of insulin when some beta cell function is present. It is not a replacement for insulin but helps the body produce more insulin. Therefore, it can be used when there is still some beta cell function present, unlike insulin which is used when there is a deficiency of endogenous insulin production.
2. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed sucroferric oxyhydroxide. What potential side effect should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Diarrhea
- B. Constipation
- C. Nausea
- D. Hyperphosphatemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Sucroferric oxyhydroxide is known to cause diarrhea as a side effect. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the client for any signs of diarrhea while on this medication to ensure timely intervention and management.
3. A 59-year-old client is prescribed furosemide 40 mg twice a day for the management of heart failure. The practical nurse should monitor the client for the development of which complication?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hyperchloremia
- C. Hypercalcemia
- D. Hypophosphatemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that inhibits the reabsorption of sodium and chloride in the kidneys, leading to increased potassium excretion and potentially causing hypokalemia. Hypokalemia can lead to cardiac irregularities, making it crucial for the practical nurse to monitor the client for this electrolyte imbalance. Choice B, Hyperchloremia, is not typically associated with furosemide use. Choices C and D, Hypercalcemia and Hypophosphatemia, are not common complications of furosemide therapy.
4. Prior to administering an oral dose of methylprednisolone, what is most important for the nurse to do?
- A. Administer the medication with a glass of milk
- B. Notify the healthcare provider of the finding
- C. Begin tapering the drug dose per protocol
- D. Teach the clients about foods high in calcium
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering methylprednisolone with food or milk is important as it can help reduce gastrointestinal side effects associated with the medication. This practice is commonly recommended to minimize stomach upset and irritation that may occur when taking methylprednisolone on an empty stomach. Therefore, it is crucial for the nurse to provide the medication with a glass of milk to enhance patient comfort and adherence to the treatment regimen. Choice B is incorrect as there is no indication in the question stem that suggests a need to notify the healthcare provider before administering the medication with food or milk. Choice C is incorrect because tapering the drug dose per protocol is not the immediate action needed prior to administering the first dose of methylprednisolone. Choice D is irrelevant to the administration of methylprednisolone and not the most important action to take before giving the medication.
5. A client taking long-term steroids also has ranitidine prescribed. The nurse provides which explanation as to why these drugs are given together?
- A. Ranitidine reduces the risk of ulcers associated with steroids.
- B. Ranitidine decreases the risk of infection associated with steroids.
- C. Ranitidine decreases blood sugar elevations associated with steroids.
- D. Ranitidine reduces sodium retention associated with steroid usage.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Ranitidine is prescribed with long-term steroids to reduce the risk of ulcers associated with steroid therapy. Although steroids can increase the risk of ulcers due to their effect on the gastrointestinal system, ranitidine works by reducing stomach acid production, thus helping to prevent ulcer formation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as ranitidine is not given to decrease the risk of infection, reduce blood sugar elevations, or reduce sodium retention associated with steroid usage.
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